NEET

1. The ‘National Anti-Profiteering Authority’ is associated with which tax regime?

Income Tax
Goods and Services Tax
Corporate Tax
Excise Duty

2. Angiosperms have dominated the land flora primarily because of their

nature of self pollination
power of adaptability in diverse habitat
domestication by man
property of producing large number of seeds

3. Which one of the following aspects is an exclusive characteristic of living things?

Perception of events happening in the environment and their memory
Isolated metabolic reactions occur in vitro
Increase in mass by accumulation of material both on surface as well as internally.
Increase in mass from inside only

4. Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its particular named taxonomic category?

Humans - primata, the family
Tiger - tigris, the species
Housefly - musca, an order
Cuttle fish - mollusca, a class

5. Which one of the following is considered important in the development of seed habit?

Haplontic life cycle
dependent sporophyte
Free -living gametophyte
Heterospory

6. Which one of the following is not a correct statement?

Key is taxonomic aid for identification of specimens.
Botanical gardens have collection of living plants for reference.
Herbarium houses dried, pressed and preserved plant specimens.
A museum has collection of photographs of plants and animals

7. Which one of the following organisms is scientifically correctly named, correctly printed according to the International Rules of Nomenclature and correctly described?

Felis tigris - The Indian tiger, well protected in Gir forests.
Musca domestica - The common house lizard, a reptile.
E.coli - Full name Entamoeba coli, a commonly occurring bacterium in human intestine.
Plasmodium falciparum – A protozoan pathogen causing the most serious type of malaria.

8. Lichens indicate SO2 pollution because they

are sensitive to SO2
show association between algae and fungi
flourish in SO2 rich environment
grow faster than others

9. The infective stage of malarial parasite Plasmodium that enters human body is

trophozoite
merozoite
minuta form
sporozoite

10. The plasmids pesent in the bacterial cells are

linear double helical DNA molecules
circular double helical DNA molecules
linear double helical RNA molecules
circular double helical RNA molecules

11. Which fungal disease spreads by seed and flowers?

Covered smut of barley
Loose smut of wheat
Soft rot of potato
Corn stunt

12. Which of the following statements is not true for retroviruses?

DNA is not present at any stage in the life cycle of retroviruses
The genetic material in mature retroviruses is RNA
Retroviruses are causative agents for certain kinds of cancer in man
Retroviruses carry gene for RNAdependent DNA polymerase

13. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched

Spirulina - Single cell protein
Streptomyces - Antibiotic
Rhizobium - Biofertilizer
Serratia - Drug addiction

14. Lichens are well known combination of an alga and a fungus where fungus has

a parasitic relationship with the alga
a saprophytic relationship with the alga
a symbiotic relationship with the alga
an epiphytic relationship with the alga

15. Tobacco mosaic virus is a tubular filament of size

300 × 5 nm
300 × 20 nm
700 × 30 nm
300 × 10 nm

16. Which one of the following statements about viruses is correct?

Viruses are obligate parasites
All viruses contain both RNA and DNA
Nucleic acid of viruses is known as capsid
Viruses possess their own metabolic system

17. For retting of jute the fermenting microbe used is

Helicobactor pylori
Methophilic bacteria
Streptococcus lactin
Butyric acid bacteria

18. All of the following statements concerning the Actinomycetes filamentous soil bacterium Frankia are correct except that Frankia:

Cannot fix nitrogen in the free-living state.
Forms specialized vesicles in which the nitrogenase is protected from oxygen by a chemical barrier involving triterpene hopanoids
Can induce root nodules on many plant species
Like Rhizobium, it usually infects its host plant through root hair deformation and stimulates cell proliferation in the host’s cortex

19. Auxopores and hormocysts are formed, respectively, by

Several cyanobacteria and several diatoms
Some diatoms and several cyanobacteria
Several diatoms and a few cyanobacteria.
Some cyanobacteria and diatoms

20. Viruses that infect bacteria, multiply and cause their lysis, are called

lytic
lysozymes
lysogenic
lipolytic

21. The most thoroughly studied fact of the known bacteriaplant interactions is the

nodulation of Sesbania stems by nitrogen fixing bacteria
cyanobacterial symbiosis with some aquatic ferns
plant growth stimulation by phosphatesolubilising bacteria
gall formation on certain angiosperms by Agrobacterium

22. The thalloid body of a slime mould (Myxomycetes) is known as

mycelium
plasmodium
protonema
fruiting body

23. Thermococcus, Methanococcus and Methanobacterium exemplify:

Bacteria whose DNA is relaxed or positively supercoiled but which have a cytoskeleton as well as mitochondria
Archaebacteria that contain protein homologous to eukaryotic core histones
Bacteria that contain a cytoskeleton and ribosomes
Archaebacteria that lack any histones resembling those found in eukaryotes but whose DNA is negatively supercoiled

24. In the light of recent classification of living organisms into three domains of life (bacteria, archaea and eukarya), which one of the following statements is true about archaea ?

Archaea completely differ from both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
Archaea resemble eukarya in all respects
Archaea completely differ from prokaryotes.
Archaea have some novel features that are absent in other prokaryotes and eukaryotes

25. Bacterial leaf blight of rice is caused by a species of

Alternaria
Xanthomonas
Erwinia
Pseudomonas

26. Which one of the following sets of items in the options 1 - 4 are correctly categorized with one exception in it? Items- Category- Exception

Plasmodium, Cuscuta, Trypanosoma -Protozoan parasites- Cuscuta
UAA, UAG, UGA -Stop codons -UAG
Typhoid, Pneumonia, Diphtheria -Bacterial diseases -Diphtheria
Kangaroo, Koala, Wombat -Australian marsupials -Wombat

27. In the five-kingdom classification, Chlamydomonas and Chlorella have been included in

plantae
protista
monera
algae

28. How many organisms in the list given below are autotrophs? Lactobacillus, Nostoc, Chara, Nitrosomonas, Nitrobacter, Streptomyces, Saccharomyces, Trypanosomes, Porphyra, Wolffia

Six
Four
Three
Five

29. Which of the following plants produces seeds but not flowers?

Peepal
Maize
Pinus
Mint

30. Peat Moss is used as a packing material for sending flowers and live plants to distant places because

it serves as a disinfectant
it is hygroscopic
it is easily available
It reduces transpiration

31. In a moss the sporophyte

manufactures food for itself as well as for the gametophyte
produces gametes that give rise to the gametophyte
is partially parasitic on the gametophyte
arises from a spore produced from the gametophyte

32. If you are asked to classify the various algae into distinct groups, which of the following characters you should choose?

chemical composition of the cell wall
nature of stored food materials in the cell
types of pigments present in the cell.
structural organization of thallus

33. In the prothallus of a vascular cryptogam, the antherozoids and eggs mature a different times. As a result

self-fertilization is prevented
there is high degree of sterility
there is no change in success rate of fertilization
one can conclude that the plant is apomictic

34. Conifers differ from grasses in the

formation of endosperm before fertilization
lack of xylem tracheids
production of seeds from ovules
absence of pollen tubes

35. Which one of the following plants is monoecious?

Papaya
Pinus
Marchantia
Cycas

36. Necturus is

Mud Puppy
Hell Bender
Blind Worm
Congo Eel

37. In contrast to Annelids the Platyhelminths show:

Radial symmetry
Absence of body cavity
Presence of pseudocoel
Bilaterial symmetry

38. From the following statements select the wrong one.

Millepedes have two pairs of appendages in each segment of the body
Prawn has two pairs of antennae
Animals belonging to Phylum Porifera are exclusively marine
Nematocysts are characteristic of the Pylum Cnidaria

39. Which one of the following characters is not typical of the class Mammalia?

Ten pairs of cranial nerves
Thecodont dentition
Seven cervical vertebrae
Alveolar lungs

40. In Arthropoda, head and thorax are often fused to form cephalothorax, but in which one of the following classes, is the body divided into head, thorax and abdomen?

Crustacea
Insecta
Arachnida and Crustacea
Myriapoda

41. Two common characters found in centipede, cockroach and crab are

Book lungs and antennae
Jointed legs and chitinous exoskeleton
Compound eyes and anal cerci
Green gland and tracheae

42. Which one of the following is the true description about an animal concerned?

Rat - Left kidney is slightly higher in position than the right one
Earthworm - The alimentary canal consists of a sequence of pharynx, oesophagus, stomach, gizzard and intestine
Cockroach - 10 pairs of spiracles (2 pairs on thorax and 8 pairs on abdomen)
Frog - Body divisible into three regions - head, neck and trunk

43. Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of phylum Annelida?

Pseudocoelom
Closed circulatory system
Ventral nerve cord
Segmentation

44. Which one of the following groups of three animals each is correctly matched with their one characteristic morphological feature? Animals Morphological - feature

Scorpion, Spider, - Ventral solid central Cockroach nervous system
Liver fluke, Sea - Bilateral anemone, Sea symmetry cucumber
Cockroach, - Metameric Locust, Taenia segmentation
Centipede, Prawn- Jointed appendages Sea urchin

45. Ascaris is characterized by

presence of true coelom but absence of metamerism
absence of true coelom but presence of metamerism
presence of true coelom and metamerism (metamerisation)
presence of neither true coelom nor metamerism

46. Which one of the following phyla is correctly matched with its two general characteristics?

Echinodermata - Pentamerous radial symmetry and mostly internal fertilization
Arthropoda - Body divided into head, thorax and abdomen and respiration by tracheae
Mollusca - Normally oviparous and development through a trochophore or veliger larva
Chordata - Notochord at some stage and separate anal and urinary openings to the outside

47. What will you look for to identify the sex of the following?

Female cockroach-Anal cerci
Female Ascaris- Sharply curved posterior end
Male shark-Claspers borne on pelvic fins
Male frog- A copulatory pad on the first digit of the hind limb

48. Which one of the following statements about certain given animals is correct?

Insects are pseudocoelomates
Round worms (Aschelminthes) are pseudocoelomates
Flat worms (Platyhelminthes) are coelomates
Molluscs are acoelomates

49. Which one of the following kinds of animals are triploblastic?

Ctenophores
Flat worms
Corals
Sponges

50. Which one of the following statements about all the four of Spongilla, Leech, Dolphin and Penguin is correct?

Spongilla has special collared cells called choanocytes, not found in the remaining three
Penguin is homeothermic while the remaining three are poikilothermic
All are bilaterally symmetrical
Leech is a fresh water form while all others are marine

51. One example of animals having a single opening to the outside that serves both as mouth as well as anus is:

Ascidia
Octopus
Fasciola
Asterias

52. Which one of the following statements is totally wrong about the occurrence of notochord, while the other three are correct?

It is absent throughout life in humans from the very beginning
It is present only in larval tail in Ascidians
It is present throughout life in Amphioxus
It is replaced by a vertebral column in adult frog

53. In which one of the folllowing, the genus name, its two characters and its class/phylum are correctly matched? Genus name --Two characters --Class/ phylum

Pteropus --(i) Skin possesses hair Mammalia (ii) Oviparous--Mamalia
Ascaris --(i) Body segmented Annelida (ii) Males and females distinct -- Anelida
Aurelia --(i) Cnidoblasts Coelenterata (ii) Organ level of organization-- Coelenterata
Salamandra --(i) A tympanum represents ear Amphibia (ii) Fertilization is external --Amphibia

54. Which one of the following groups of animals is correctly matched with its one characteristic feature without even a single exception?

Reptilia: possess 3 - chambered heart with one incompletely divided ventricle
Chondrichthyes: possess cartilagious endoskeleton
Mammalia: give birth to young one.
Chordata: possess a mouth provided with an upper and lower jaw

55. Which one of the following have the highest number of species in nature?

Birds
Fungi
Angiosperms
Insects

56. Which group of animals belong to the same phylum?

Sponge, Sea anemone, Starfish
Earthworm, Pinworm, Tapeworm
Malarial parasite, Amoeba, Mosquito
Prawn, Scorpion, Locusta

57. Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its one characteristics and the taxon? Animal Characteristic Taxon

Sea Anemone -- Triploblastic -- Cnidaria
Duckbilled -- Oviparous -- Mammalian platypus
Silverfish-- Pectoral and Chordata -- Pelvic fins
Millipede -- Ventral nerve -- Arachnida cord

58. The characteristics of class Reptilia are:

Fresh water animals with bony endoskeleton, air-bladder to regulate buoyancy
Body covered with dry and cornified skin, scales over the body are epidermal, they do not have external ears
Marine animals with cartilaginous endoskeleton, body covered with placoid scales
Body covered with moist skin which is devoid of scales, the ear is represented by a tympanum, alimentary canal, urinary and reproductive tracts open into a common cloaca

59. Which of the following are correctly matched with respect to their taxonomic classification?

Spiny anteater, sea urchin, sea cucumberEchinodermata
Centipede, millipede, spider, scorpionInsecta
Flying fish, cuttlefish, silverfish-Pisces
House fly, butterfly, tse tse fly, silverfishInsecta

60. Match the name of the animal (column I), with one characteristics (column II), and the phylum/class (column III) to which it belongs :

Adamsia -- radially Porifera -- symmetrical
Ichthyophis -- terrestrial -- Reptilia
Petromyzon-- ectoparasite -- Cyclostomata
Limulus -- body Pisces covered by chitinous -- exoskeleton

61. Perisperm is

peripheral part of endosperm
remnant of endosperm
disintegrated secondary nucleus
persistent nucellus

62. Micropyle of seed is involved in the passage of

water
male gamete
gases
pollen tube

63. Chlorenchyma is known to develop in the

mycelium of a green mould such as Aspergillus
pollen tube of Pinus
spore capsule of a moss
cytoplasm of Chlorella

64. The apical meristem of the root is present

only in tap roots
in all the roots
only in adventitious roots
only in radicals

65. The cells of the quiescent centre are characterised by

having light cytoplasm and small nuclei
dividing regularly to add to tunica
dividing regularly to add to the corpus
having dense cytoplasm and prominent nuclei

66. Which of the following statements is true?

Vessels are unicellular with wide lumen
Vessels are multicellular with narrow lumen
Tracheids are unicellular with wide lumen
Tracheids are multicellular with narrow lumen

67. Which one of the following is resistant to enzyme action?

Pollen exine
Cork
Leaf cuticle
Wood fibre

68. Vascular tissues in flowering plants develop from:

periblem
phellogen
dermatogen
plerome

69. The length of different internodes in a culm of sugarcane is variable because of

size of leaf lamina at the node below each internode
shoot apical meristem
intercalary meristem
position of axillary buds

70. Which one of the following is not a lateral meristem?

Phellogen
Intrafascicular cambium
Intercalary meristem
Interfascicular cambium

71. The chief water conducting elements of xylem in gymnosperms are:

transfusion tissue
vessels
tracheids
fibres

72. In Kranz anatomy, the bundle sheath cells have

thin walls, no intercellular spaces and several chloroplasts
thin walls, many intercellular spaces and no chloroplasts
thick walls, many intercellular spaces and few chloroplasts
thick walls, no intercellular spaces and large number of chloroplasts

73. Some vascular bundles are described as open because these

possess conjunctive tissue between xylem and phloem
are surrounded by pericycle but not endodermis
are not surrounded by pericycle
are capable of producing secondary xylem and phloem

74. The kind of epithelium which forms the inner walls of blood vessels is:

ciliated columnar epithelium
cuboidal epithelium
squamous epithelium
columnar epithelium

75. Compared to those of humans, the erythrocytes in frog are

nucleated and with haemoglobin
very much smaller and fewer
Without nucleus but with haemoglobin
nucleated and without haemoglobin.

76. The type of muscles present in our:

thigh are striated and voluntary
heart are involuntary and unstriated smooth muscles
upper arm are smooth muscle fibres fusiform in shape
intestine are striated and involuntary

77. Which of the following statement regarding mitochondrial membrane is not correct?

The outer membrane resembles a sieve
The enzymes of the electron transfer chain are embedded in the outer membrane
The outer membrane is permeable to all kinds of molecules
The inner membrane is highly convoluted forming a series of infoldings

78. Protein synthesis in an animal cell occurs

on-ribosomes present in the nucleolus as well as in cytoplasm
only on the ribosomes present in cytosol
on ribosomes present in cytoplasm as well as in mitochondria
only on ribosomes attached to the nuclear envelope and endoplasmic reticulum

79. Centromere is required for:

crossing over
movement of chromosomes towards poles
transcription
cytoplasmic cleavage

80. For best resolution, a student studying cell structure with a 10X eyepiece and 45X objective should illuminate the object with which light color?

Yellow
Blue
Red
Green

81. Polysome is formed by

a ribosome with several subunits
several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA
ribosomes attached to each other in a linear arrangement
many ribosomes attached to a strand of endoplasmic reticulum

82. Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell membrane?

phospholipids
glycolipids
cholesterol
proline

83. Select the wrong statement from the following

The chloroplasts are generally much large than mitochondria
Both chloroplasts and mitochondria have an internal compartment, the thylakoid space bounded by the thylakoid membrane
Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain an inner and an outer membrane.
Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain DNA

84. Cytoskeleton is made up of:

proteinaceous filaments
callose deposits
calcium carbonate granules
cellulosic microfibrils

85. Minor changes at gene level are described as

Reverse mutations
Point mutations
Forward mutations
Chromosomal mutations

86. Lactose is composed of

Fructose + Galactose
Glucose + Glucose
Glucose + Galactose.
Glucose + Fructose

87. Cellulose, the most important constitutent of plant cell wall is made of

unbranched chain of glucose molecules linked by b-1, 4 glycosidic bond
unbranched chain of glucose molecules linked by a-1, 4 glycosidic bond
branched chain of glucose molecules linked by a-1, 6 glycosidic bond at the site of branching.
branched chain of glucose molecules linked by b-1, 4 glycosidic bond in straight chain and a-1, 6 glycosidic bond at the site of branching

88. The enormous diversity of protein molecules is due mainly to the diversity of

amino acid sequences within the protein molecule
amino groups on the amino acids
peptide bonds
R groups on the amino acids

89. A phosphoglycerate is always made up of:

a saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a phosphate group which is also attached to a glycerol molecule.
only an unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached
only a saturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached
a saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached

90. In meiosis, the daughter cells differ from parent cell as well as amongst themselves due to

independent assortment and crossing over
segregation, independent assortment and crossing over
segregation and independent assortment
segregation and crossing over

91. Mitotic anaphase differs from metaphase in possessing

half number of chromosomes and same number of chromatids
same number of chromosomes and same number of chromatids
same number of chromosomes and half number of chromatids
half number of chromosomes and half number of chromatids

92. Which one of the following precedes reformation of the nuclear envelope during M phase of the cell cycle

Formation of the contractile ring, and formation of the phragmoplast
Decondensation from chromosomes, and reassembly of the nuclear lamina
Formation of the contractile ring, and transcription from chromosomes
Transcription from chromosomes, and reassembly of the nuclear lamina

93. In the somatic cell cycle

a short interphase is followed by a long mitotic phase
In G1 phase DNA content is double the amount of DNA present in the original cell
G2 phase follows mitotic phase
DNA replication takes place in S-phase

94. If a diploid cell is treated with colchicine then it becomes

diploid
triploid
monoploid
tetraploid

95. The translocation of organic solutes in sieve tube members is supported by

cytoplasmic streaming
P-proteins
root pressure and transpiration pull
mess flow involving a carrier and ATP

96. Sulphur is an important nutrient for optimum growth and productivity in

oilseed crops
cereals
pulse crops
fibre crops

97. Potometer works on the principle of

root pressure
osmotic pressure
potential difference between the tip of the tube and that of the plant
amount of water absorbed equals the amount transpired

98. The function of leg haemoglobin in the root nodules of legumes is:

inhibition of nitrogenase activity
expression of nif gene
oxygen removal
nodule differentiation

99. Nitrifying bacteria:

convert proteins into ammonia
oxidize ammonia to nitrates
reduce nitrates to free nitrogen
convert free nitrogen to nitrogen compounds

100. Which one of the following elements in plants is not remobilised?

Potassium
Phosphorus
Sulphur
Calcium

101. Which group of three of the following five statements (a-e) contain is all three correct statements regarding beri-beri?

a nutritional disorder in infants and young children when the diet is persistently deficient in essential protein;
a crippling disease prevalant among the native population of sub-Saharan Africa;
occurs in those countries where the staple diet is polished rice; (e) the symptoms are pain from neuritis, paralysis, muscle wasting, progressive oedema, mental deterioration and finally heart failure;
a deficiency disease caused by lack of thiamine (vitamin B1)

102. .The richest sources of vitamin B12 are

Rice and hen’s egg
Goat’s liver and Spirulina
Carrot and chicken’s breast
Chocolate and green gram

103. Which one of the following is the correct matching of a vitamin, its nature and its deficiency disease?

Vitamin A – Fat-soluble – Beri-beri
Vitamin A – Fat-soluble – Night blindness
Vitamin K – Water-soluble – Pellagra
Vitamin K – Fat-Soluble – Beri-beri

104. What will happen if the secretion of parietal cells of gastric glands is blocked with an inhibitor?

In the absence of HCI secretion, inactive pepsinogen is not converted into the active enzyme pepsin
Gastric juice will be deficient in chymosin
Enterokinase will not be released from the duodenal mucosa and so trypsinogen is not converted to trypsin
Gastric juice will be deficient in pepsinogen

105. If for some reason our goblet cells are non functional, this will adversely affect:

maturation of sperms
production of somatostatin
smooth movement of food down the intes-tine
secretion of sebum from the sebaceous glands

106. Which one of the following pairs of food components in humans reaches the stomach totally undigested?

Starch and cellulose
Starch and fat
Protein and starch
Fat and cellulose

107. Which one of the following statements is true regarding digestion and absorption of food in humans?

About 60% of starch is hydrolysed by salivary amylase in our mouth
Fructose and amino acids are absorbed through intestinal mucosa with the help of carrier ions like Na+.
Oxyntic cells in our stomach secrete the proenzyme pepsinogen.
Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein particles that are transported from intestine into blood capillaries.

108. The alveolar epithelium in the lungs is

ciliated columnar
nonciliated columnar
ciliated squamous
nonciliated squamous

109. Skin is an accessory organ of respiration in

rabbit
humans
lizard
frog

110. The carbon dioxide is transported via blood to lungs as

in combination with haemoglobin only
dissolved in blood plasma
carbaminohaemoglobin and as carbonic acid
in the form of carbonic acid only

111. Although much CO2 is carried in blood, yet blood does not become acidic, because

it combines with water to form which is neutralized by NaCO3
it is absorbed by the leucocytes
it is continuously diffused through tissues and is not allowed to accumulate
blood buffers play an important role in CO2 transport.

112. Air is breathed through

Nostrils — pharynx — larynx — trachea — bronchi — bronchioles — alveoli
Trachea — lungs — larynx — pharynx — alveoli
Nose — mouth — lungs
Nose — larynx — pharynx — bronchus — alveoli — bronchioles

113. Oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin is

Linear
Sigmoid
Hypobolic
Hyperbolic

114. inhaling polluted air containing unusually high content of

carbon dioxide
carbon disulphide
carbon monoxide
chloroform

115. When CO2 concentration in blood increases, breathing becomes

slow and deep
shallower and slow
faster and deeper
there is no effect on breathing

116. Which of the following are the correct statement for respiration in human

Workers in grinding and stone - breaking industries may suffer from lung fibrosis
Cigarette smoking may lead of inflammation of bronchi
About 90% of carbon dioxide (CO2) is carried by haemoglobin as carbamino haemoglobin.
Neural signals from pneumotaxic centre in pons region of brain can increase the duration of inspiration

117. Which one of the following is a possibility for most of us in regard to breathing, by making a conscious effort?

One can consiously breathe in and breathe out by moving the diaphragm alone, without moving the ribs at all.
One can breathe out air totally without oxygen.
The lungs can be made fully empty by forcefully breathing out all air from them
One can breathe out air through eustachian tubes by closing both the nose and the mouth.

118. Child death may occur in the marriage between

Rh– man and Rh– woman
Rh+ man and Rh+ woman
Rh– man and Rh+ woman
Rh+ man and Rh– woman

119. Which of the following statments is true for lymph?

RBCs, WBCs and plasma
WBC and serum
RBCs proteins and platelets
all components of blood except RBCs and some proteins

120. Impulse of heart beat originates from

Vagus nerve
S. A. node
Cardiac nerve
A. V. node

121. What is correct for blood group ‘O’?

Antigen and antibody both absent
No antigens but both a and b antibodies are present
A and B antigens and a, b antibodies
A antigen and b antibody

122. Sickle cell anaemia is induced by

change of amino acid in both a- and b-chain of haemoglobin
change of amino acid in a-chain of haemoglobin
change of amino acid in either a- or b-chain of haemoglobin
change of amino acid in b-chain of haemoglobin

123. As the age advances, there is a gradual thinning of hair in human males. This is mainly because of lowered

synthesis of glycogen
blood supply
availability of energy
synthesis of proteins

124. In the ABO system of blood groups, if both antigens are present but no antibody, the blood group of the individual would be

125. Bundle of His is a network of

muscle fibres found only in the ventricle wall
nerve fibres found throughout the heart
Muscle fibers distributed throughout the heart walls
nerve fibres distributed in ventricles

126. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

The principle of countercurrent flow facilitates efficient respiration in gills of fishes
The presence of non-respiratory air sacs, increases the efficiency of respiration in birds
The residual area in lungs slightly decreases the efficiency of respiration in mammals
In insects, circulating body fluids serve to distribute oxygen to tissues

127. Damage to thymus in a child may lead to

loss of antibody mediated immunity
a reduction in haemoglobin content of blood
loss of cell mediated immunity
a reduction in stem cell production

128. In humans, blood passes from the post caval to the diastolic right atrium of heart due to.

stimulation of the sino auricular node
pushing open of the venous valves
pressure difference between the post caval and atrium
suction pull

129. The most active phagocytic white blood cells are:

lymphocytes and macrophages
neutrophils and monocytes
neutrophils and eosinophils
eosinophils and lymphocytes

130. Which type of white blood cells are concerned with the release of histamine and the natural anti- coagulant heparin?

Eosinophils
Neutrophils
Monocytes
Basophils

131. What is true about RBCs in humans?

They transport about 80 per cent oxygen only and the rest 20 per cent of it is transported in dissolved state in blood plasma
They carry about 20–25 per cent of CO2
They do not carry CO2 at all
They transport 99.5 per cent of O2

132. Bulk of carbon dioxide (CO2) released from body tissues into the blood is present as

70% carbamino- haemoglobin and 30% as bicarbonate
bicarbonate in blood plasma and RBCs
carbamino-haemoglobin in RBCs
free CO2 in blood plasma

133. Given below is the ECG of a normal human. Which one of its components in human is correctly interpreted below

Peak P and Peak R together-Systolic and diastolic blood pressures
Complex QRS-One complete Pulse
Peak P- Initiation of left atrial contraction only
Peak T - Initiation of total cardiac contraction

134. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding blood pressure?

105/50 mm Hg makes one very active
130/90 mmHg is considered high and requires treatment
90/110 mmHg may harm vital organs like brain and kidney
100/55 mmHg is considered an ideal blood pressure

135. Arteries are best defined as the vessels which:

break up into capillaries which reunite to form a vein
supply oxygenated blood to the different organs
carry blood from one visceral organ to another visceral organ
break up into capillaries which reunite to form one visceral organ

136. Which one of the following plasma proteins is involved in the coagulation of blood?

a globulin
an albumin
fibrinogen
serum amylase

137. Consider the following four statements (a-d) about certain desert animals such as kangaroo, rat.

They feed on dry seeds and do not require drinking water
They have dark colour and high rate of reproduction and excrete solid urine
They excrete very concentrated urine and do not use water to regulate body temperature Which two of the above statements for such animals are true?
They do not drink water, breathe at a slow rate to conserve water and have their body covered with thick hairs

138. Lysozyme that is present in perspiration, saliva and tears, destroys

most virus-infected cells
certain types of bacteria
certain fungi
all viruses

139. Bowman’s glands are located in the

olfactory epithelium of our nose
anterior pituitary
proximal end of uriniferous tubules.
female re productive system of cockroach

140. In Ornithine cycle, which of the following wastes are removed from the blood?

CO2 and ammonia
CO2 and urea
Urea and urine
Ammonia and urea

141. The principal nitrogenous excretory compound in humans is synthesised

in liver and also eliminated by the same through bile
in kidneys but eliminated mostly through liver
in the liver, but eliminated mostly through kidneys
in kidneys as well as eliminated by kidneys

142. Which one of the following statements in regard to the excretion by the human kidneys is correct?

Nearly 99 per cent of the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed by the renal tubules
Descending limb of Loop of Henle is impermeable to water
Ascending limb of Loop of Henle is impermeable to electrolytes
Distal convoluted tubule is incapable of reabsorbing HCO3

143. Which one of the following correctly explains the function of a specific part of a human nephron?

Distal convoluted tubule: reabsorption of K+ ions into the surrounding blood capillaries
Podocytes: create minute spaces (slite pores) for the filtration of blood into the Bowman’s capsule
Afferent arteriole: carries the blood away from the glomerular towards renal vein.
Henle’s loop: most reabsorption of the major substances from the glomerular filtrate

144. A large proportion of oxygen is left unused in the human blood even after its uptake by the body tissues. This O2

is enough to keep oxyhaemoglobin saturation at 96%
acts as a reserve during muscular exercise
helps in releasing more O2 to the epithelial tissues.
raise the pCO2 of blood to 75 mm of Hg.

145. Which one of the following is not a part of a renal pelvis?

Collecting ducts
Peritubular capillaries
Loops of Henle
Convoluted tubules

146. Which one of the following characteristics is common to both in humans and adult frogs?

Nucleated RBCs
Four - chambered heart
Ureotelic mode of excretion
Internal fertilization

147. A fall in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) activates

juxta - glomerular cells to release renin.
adrenal cortex to release aldosterone.
posterior pituitary to release vasopressin
adrenal medulla to release adrenaline.

148. Ureters act as urogenital ducts in

frog's both males and females
human males
frog's males
human females

149. The characteristics and an example of a synovial joint in humans is: Characteristics Examples

Lymph filled between gliding joint two bones, limited between movement carpals
Fluid filled between Skull bones two joints, provides cushion
Fluid cartilage Knee joint between two bones, limited movements
Fluid filled synovial Joint between cavity between two atlas and axis bones

150. Which one of the following pairs of chemical substances is correctly categorized?

Troponin and myosin - Complex proteins in striated muscles
Calcitonin and thymosin - Thyroid hormones
Secretin and rhodopsin - Polypeptide hormones
Pepsin and prolactin - Two digestive enzymes secreted in stomach

151. Which of the following is an example of negative feedback loop in humans?

Secretion of sweat glands and constriction of skin blood vessels when it is too hot
Secretion of tears after falling of sand particles into the eye.
Constriction of skin blood vessels and contraction of skeletal muscles when it is too cold
Salivation of mouth at the sight of delicious food

152. In a man, abducens nerve is injured. Which one of the following functions will be affected?

Swallowing
Movement of the eye ball
Movement of the neck
Movement of the tongue

153. Alzheimer disease in humans is associated with the deficiency of:

gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA)
glutamic acid
dopamine
acetylcholine

154. Cornea transplant in humans is almost never rejected. This is because

it has no blood supply
it is composed of enucleated cells
its cells are least penetrable by bacteria
it is a non-living layer

155. During the propagation of a nerve impulse, the action potential results from the movement of:

K+ ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid
K+ ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid
Na+ ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid
Na+ ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid

156. Which one of the following is the correct difference between Rod Cells and Cone Cells of our retina? Rod Cells Cone Cells

Overall: Vision in Colour function poor light vision and detailed vision in bright light
Visual: High Low acuity
Distribu- More conc- Evenly tion: entrated in distributed retina all over
Visual: Iodopsin Rhodpsin pigment contained

157. The human hind brain comprises three parts, one of which is:

Cerebellum
Spinal cord
Hypothalamus
Corpus callosum

158. The purplish red pigment rhodopsin contained in the rods type of photoreceptor cells of the human eye, is a derivative of:

vitamin D
vitamin B1
vitamin A
vitamin C

159. Toxic agents present in food which interfere with thyroxine synthesis lead to the development of:

simple goitre
toxic goitre
thyrotoxicosis
cretinism

160. Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?

Corpus luteum - Relaxin (secretion)
Glucagon - Beta cells (source)
Insulin - Diabetes mellitus (disease)
Somatostatin - Delta cells (source)

161. F2 generation in a Mendelian cross showed that both genotypic and phenotypic ratios are same as 1: 2: 1. It represents a case of:

Monohybrid cross with complete dominance
Co-dominance
Monohybrid cross with incomplete dominance
Dihybrid cross

162. What is correct to say about the hormone action in humans

In females FSH first binds with specific receptors on ovarian cell membrane
Glucagon is secreted by β-cells of islets of Langerhans and stimulates glycogenolysis
FSH stimulates the secretion of estrogen and progesterone
Secretion of thymosins is stimulated with ageing

163. Monoecious plant of Chara shows occurrence of:

upper oogonium and lower antheridium on the same plant
stamen and carpel of the same plant
antheridiophore and archegoniophore on the same plant
upper antheridium and lower oogonium on the same plant

164. Select the wrong statement:

Chalmydomonas exhibits both isogamy and anisogamy and Fucus shows oogamy.
Isogametes are similar in structure, function and behaviour.
Anisogametes differ either in structure, function or behaviour.
In Oomycetes female gamete is smaller and motile, while male gamete is larger and non-motile.

165. Which one of the following is correctly matched

Chlamydomonas - Conidia
Onion - Bulb
Yeast - Zoospores
Ginger - Sucker

166. What is common between vegetative reproduction and apomixis?

Both occur round the year
Both are applicable to only dicot plants
Both produces progeny identical to the parent
Both bypass the flowering phase

167. The “Eyes” of the potato tuber are

shoot buds
root buds
axillary buds
flower buds

168. The estrous cycle is a characteristic of

mammalian males other than primates
human males only
mammalian females other than primates
human females only

169. Which of the following statements is not true about somatic embryogenesis?

Somatic embryos can develop from microspores
A somatic embryo develops from a somatic cell
Somatic embryo is induced usually by an auxin such as 2, 4-D
The pattern of development of a somatic embryo is comparable to that of a zygotic embryo

170. Albuminous seeds store their reserve food mainly in

Cotyledons
Perisperm
Hypocotyl
Endosperm

171. Seminal plasma in humans is rich in

fructose and certain enzymes but poor in calcium
fructose and calcium but has no enzymes
fructose, calcium and certain enzymes
glucose and certain enzymes but has no calcium

172. Which one of the following is the correct matching of the events occurring during menstrual cycle?

Menstruati on: Breakdown of myometrium and ovum not fertilised.
Proliferative phase: Rapid regeneration of myometrium and maturation of Graffian follicle.
Ovulation: LH and FSH attain peak level and sharp fall in the secretion of progesterone.
Development of corpus luteum: Secretory phase and increased secretion of progesterone.

173. Which one of the following statements is incorrect about menstruation?

At menopause in the female, there is especially abrupt increase in gonadotropic hormones
During normal menstruation about 40 ml blood is lost
The beginning of the cycle of menstruation is called menarche
The menstrual fluid can easily clot

174. Which extra-embryonic membrane in humans prevents desiccation of the embryo inside the uterus?

Yolk sac
Chorion
Amnion
Allantois

175. In vitro fertilisation is a technique that involves transfer of which one of the following into the fallopian tube?

Embryo of 32 cell stage
Embryo only, upto 8 cell stage
Zygote only
Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell stage

176. A change in the amount of yolk and its distribution in the egg will affect

fertilization
pattern of cleavage
formation of zygote
number of blastomeres produced

177. Which one of the following is the most likely root cause why menstruation is not taking place in regularly cycling human female?

retention of well -developed corpus luteum
maintenance of the hypertrophical endometrial lining
fertilisation of the ovum
maintenance of high concentration of sex hormones in the blood stream

178. The correct sequence of spermatogenetic stages leading to the formation of sperms in a mature human testes is:

spermatogonia - spermatid - spermatocyte - sperms
spermatogonia - spermatocyte - spermatid -sperms
spermatocyte - spermatogonia - spermatid - sperms
spermatid - spermatocyte - spermatogonia - sperms

179. Foetal ejection reflex in human female is induced by

differentiation of mammary glands
release oxytocin from pituitary
pressure exerted by amniotic fluid
fully developed foetus and placenta

180. The signals for parturition originate from

oxytocin released from maternal pituitary
placenta only
fully developed foetus only
placenta as well as fully developed foetus

181. The permissible use of the technique amniocentesis is for

transfer of embryo into the uterus of the surrogate mother
detecting sex of the unborn foetus
detecting any genetic abnormality
artificial insemination

182. Seminal plasma in human males is rich in:

DNA and testosterone
fructose and calcium
ribose and potassium
glucose and calcium

183. Vasa efferentia are the ductules leading from

vas deferens to epididymis
testicular lobules to rete testis
epididymis to urethra
rete testis to vas deferens

184. Sertoli cells are found in

seminiferous tubules and provide nutrition to germ cells
ovaries and secrete progesterone
pancreas and secrete cholecystokinin
adrenal cortex and secrete adrenaline

185. The part of fallopian tube closest to the ovary is

cervix
isthmus
ampulla
infundibulum

186. Which one of the following statements about morula in humans is correct?

It has more or less equal quantity of cytoplasm and DNA as in uncleaved zygote
It has almost equal quantity of cytoplasm as an uncleaved zygote but much more DNA
It has more cytoplasm and more DNA than an uncleaved zygote
It has far less cytoplasm as well as less DNA than in an uncleaved zygote

187. In a normal pregnant woman, the amount of total gonadotropin activity was assessed. The result expected was

High level of FSH and LH in uterus to stimulate endometrical thickening
High level of circulating FSH and LH in the uterus to stimulate implantation of the embyro
High level of circulating HCG to stimulate estrogen and progesterone synthesis
High level of circulatting HCG to stimulate endometrial thickening

188. Signals for parturition originate from:

Placenta only
Both placenta as well as fully developed foetus
Fully developed foetus only
Oxytocin released from maternal pituitary

189. Which of the following best illustrates FEEDBACK in development?

As tissue (X) develops, it secretes enzymes that inhibit the development of tissue (Y)
As tissue (X) develops, it secretes something that slows down the growth of tissue (Y)
As tissue (X) develops, it secretes something that induces tissue (Y) to develop
Tissue (X) secretes RNA which changes the development of tissue (Y)

190. Which one of the following is not the function of placenta? It:

secretes oxytocin during parturition
secretes estrogen
facilitates supply of oxygen and nutrients to embyo
facilitates removal of carbon dioxide and waste material from embryo.

191. What is the correct sequence of sperm formation?

S p e r m a t o g o n i a, s p e r m a t o c y t e, spermatozoa, spermatid
Spermatogonia, spermatocyte, spermatid, spermatozoa
Spermatid, spermatocyte, spermatogonia, spermatozoa
Sperma t o gonia; spermatozoa, spermatocyte, spermatid

192. Menstrual flow occurs due to lack of:

Vasopressin
FSH
Progesterone
Oxytocin

193. The secretory phase in the human menstrual cycle is also called

luteal phase and lasts for about 13 days
luteal phase and lasts for about 6 days
follicular phase and lasts for about 13 days
follicular phase lasting for about 6 days

194. Copper-T is a device that prevents

fertilization
ovulation
implantation of blastocyst
egg maturation

195. The foetal ejection reflex in humans triggers release of

Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG) from placenta
Oxytocin from maternal pituitary
Human Placental Lactogen (hPL) from placenta
Oxytocin from foetal pituitary

196. The technique called gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those females:

whose cervical canal is too narrow to allow passage for the sperms
who cannot produce an ovum
who cannot provide suitable environment for fertilisation
who cannot retain the foetus inside uterus.

197. Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is considered safe up to how many weeks of pregnancy?

Eighteen weeks
Eight weeks
Six weeks
Twelve weeks

198. Cu ions released from copper - releasing Intra Uterine Devices (IUDs):

suppress sperm motility
m a k e u t e r u s u n s u i t a b l e f o r implantation
prevent ovulation
increase phagocytosis of sperms

199. Artificial insemination mean:

Introduction of sperms of a healthy donor directly into the ovary
Transfer of sperms of husband to a test tube containing ova
Transfer of sperms of a healthy donor to a test tube containing ova
Artificial introduction of sperms of a healthy donor into the vagina

200. One of the legal methods of birth control is:

by a premature ejaculation during coitus
by abstaining from coitus from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle
abortion by taking an appropriate medicine
by having coitus at the time of day break

201. Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis?

Jaundice
Sex of the foetus
Klinefelter syndrome
Down syndrome

202. Which of the following statement regarding mitochondrial membrane is not correct?

The outer membrane resembles a sieve
The enzymes of the electron transfer chain are embedded in the outer membrane
The outer membrane is permeable to all kinds of molecules
The inner membrane is highly convoluted forming a series of infoldings

203. Protein synthesis in an animal cell occurs

on-ribosomes present in the nucleolus as well as in cytoplasm
only on the ribosomes present in cytosol
on ribosomes present in cytoplasm as well as in mitochondria
only on ribosomes attached to the nuclear envelope and endoplasmic reticulum

204. A major break through in the studies of cells came with the development of electron microscope. This is because

electron beam can pass through thick materials, whereas light microscopy requires thin sections
the electron microscope is more powerful than the light microscope as it uses a beam of electrons which has wavelength much longer than that of photons
the resolving power of the electron microscope is 200 – 350 nm as compared to 0.1 – 0.2 for the light microscope
the resolution power of the electron microscope in much higher than that of the light microscope

205. The enormous diversity of protein molecules is due mainly to the diversity of

amino acid sequences within the protein molecule
amino groups on the amino acids
peptide bonds
R groups on the amino acids

206. The essential chemical components of many coenzymes are:

Vitamins
Nucleic acids
Proteins
Carbohydrates

207. A phosphoglycerate is always made up of:

a saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached
only a saturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached
only an unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached
a saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a phosphate group which is also attached to a glycerol molecule.

208. Which one of the following precedes reformation of the nuclear envelope during M phase of the cell cycle

Transcription from chromosomes, and reassembly of the nuclear lamina
Formation of the contractile ring, and transcription from chromosomes
Decondensation from chromosomes, and reassembly of the nuclear lamina
Formation of the contractile ring, and formation of the phragmoplast

209. In the somatic cell cycle

DNA replication takes place in S-phase
G2 phase follows mitotic phase
In G1 phase DNA content is double the amount of DNA present in the original cell
a short interphase is followed by a long mitotic phase

210. Given below is the representation of a certain event at a particular stage of a type of cell division. Which is this stage?

Prophase II during meiosis
Both prophase and metaphase of mitosis
Prophase I during meiosis
Prophase of Mitosis

211. During gamete formation, the enzyme recombinase participates during

Anaphase - II
Prophase - II
Metaphase - I
Prophase - I

212. At metaphase, chromosomes are attached to the spindle fibres by their:

secondary constrictions
centromere
satellites
kinetochores

213. The translocation of organic solutes in sieve tube members is supported by

mess flow involving a carrier and ATP
root pressure and transpiration pull
P-proteins
cytoplasmic streaming

214. The function of leg haemoglobin in the root nodules of legumes is:

oxygen removal
expression of nif gene
inhibition of nitrogenase activity
nodule differentiation

215. Nitrifying bacteria:

convert proteins into ammonia
reduce nitrates to free nitrogen
oxidize ammonia to nitrates
convert free nitrogen to nitrogen compounds

216. Which group of three of the following five statements (a-e) contain is all three correct statements regarding beri-beri?

a deficiency disease caused by lack of thiamine (vitamin B1)
occurs in those countries where the staple diet is polished rice; (e) the symptoms are pain from neuritis, paralysis, muscle wasting, progressive oedema, mental deterioration and finally heart failure;
a crippling disease prevalant among the native population of sub-Saharan
a nutritional disorder in infants and young children when the diet is persistently deficient in essential protein;

217. The richest sources of vitamin B12 are

Chocolate and green gram
Carrot and chicken’s breast
Goat’s liver and Spirulina
Rice and hen’s egg

218. Which one of the following is the correct matching of a vitamin, its nature and its deficiency disease?

Vitamin K – Fat-Soluble – Beri-beri
Vitamin K – Water-soluble – Pellagra
Vitamin A – Fat-soluble – Night blindness
Vitamin A – Fat-soluble – Beri-beri

219. site of action on the given substrate, the enzyme acting upon it and the end product?

Small inestine: Starch Disaccharide (Maltose)
Stomach: Fats Micelles
Duodenum: Triglycerides Monoglycerides
Small intestine: Proteins Amino acids

220. Which one of the following enzymes carries out the initial step in the digestion of milk in humans?

Trypsin
Rennin
Pepsin
Lipase

221. If for some reason our goblet cells are non functional, this will adversely affect:

secretion of sebum from the sebaceous glands
production of somatostatin
smooth movement of food down the intes-tine
maturation of sperms

222. Skin is an accessory organ of respiration in

lizard
frog
humans
rabbit

223. The carbon dioxide is transported via blood to lungs as

in the form of carbonic acid only
dissolved in blood plasma
in the form of carbonic acid only
carbaminohaemoglobin and as carbonic acid

224. Although much CO2 is carried in blood, yet blood does not become acidic, because

blood buffers play an important role in CO2 transport.
it is continuously diffused through tissues and is not allowed to accumulate
it is absorbed by the leucocytes
it combines with water to form which is neutralized by NaCO3

225. Oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin is

Hyperbolic
Hypobolic
Sigmoid
Linear

226. When CO2 concentration in blood increases, breathing becomes

there is no effect on breathing
faster and deeper
shallower and slow
slow and deep

227. Which of the following are the correct statement for respiration in human

Neural signals from pneumotaxic centre in pons region of brain can increase the duration of inspiration
About 90% of carbon dioxide (CO2) is carried by haemoglobin as carbamino haemoglobin.
Cigarette smoking may lead of inflammation of bronchi
Workers in grinding and stone - breaking industries may suffer from lung fibrosis

228. Which one of the following is a possibility for most of us in regard to breathing, by making a conscious effort?

One can breathe out air through eustachian tubes by closing both the nose and the mouth.
The lungs can be made fully empty by forcefully breathing out all air from them
One can breathe out air totally without oxygen.
One can consiously breathe in and breathe out by moving the diaphragm alone, without moving the ribs at all.

229. Child death may occur in the marriage between

Rh– man and Rh+ woman
Rh+ man and Rh– woman
Rh+ man and Rh+ woman
Rh– man and Rh– woman

230. Impulse of heart beat originates from

A. V. node
Cardiac nerve
S. A. node
Vagus nerve

231. The cardiac pacemaker in a patient fails to function normally. The doctors find that an artificial pacemaker is to be grafted in him.

Purkinje system
Atrioventricular node
Atrioventricular bundle
Sinuatrial node

232. Damage to thymus in a child may lead to:

a reduction in stem cell production
loss of cellated immunity
a reduction in haemoglobin content of blood
loss of antibody mediated immunity

233. The most active phagocytic white blood cells are:

lymphocytes and macrophages
neutrophils and monocytes
neutrophils and eosinophils
eosinophils and lymphocytes

234. Which type of white blood cells are concerned with the release of histamine and the natural anti- coagulant heparin?

Basophils
Monocytes
Neutrophils
Eosinophils

235. What is true about RBCs in humans?

They transport 99.5 per cent of O2
They do not carry CO2 at all
They carry about 20–25 per cent of CO2
They transport about 80 per cent oxygen only and the rest 20 per cent of it is transported in dissolved state in blood plasma

236. If due to some injury the chordae tendinae of the tricuspid valve of the human heart is partially non - functional, what will be the immediate effect?

The ‘pacemaker’ will stop working
The flow of blood into the pulmonary artery will be reduced
The flow of blood into the aorta will be slowed down
The blood will tend to flow back into the left atrium

237. Bulk of carbon dioxide (CO2) released from body tissues into the blood is present as

free CO2 in blood plasma
carbamino-haemoglobin in RBCs
bicarbonate in blood plasma and RBCs
70% carbamino- haemoglobin and 30% as bicarbonate

238. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding blood pressure?

100/55 mmHg is considered an ideal blood pressure
90/110 mmHg may harm vital organs like brain and kidney
130/90 mmHg is considered high and requires treatment
105/50 mm Hg makes one very active

239. Lysozyme that is present in perspiration, saliva and tears, destroys

all viruses
certain fungi
certain types of bacteria
most virus-infected cells

240. In Ornithine cycle, which of the following wastes are removed from the blood?

Ammonia and urea
Urea and urine
CO2 and urea
CO2 and ammonia

241. Which one of the following correctly explains the function of a specific part of a human nephron?

Henle’s loop: most reabsorption of the major substances from the glomerular filtrate
Afferent arteriole: carries the blood away from the glomerular towards renal vein.
Distal convoluted tubule: reabsorption of K+ ions into the surrounding blood capillaries
Podocytes: create minute spaces (slite pores) for the filtration of blood into the Bowman’s capsule

242. A large proportion of oxygen is left unused in the human blood even after its uptake by the body tissues. This O2

raise the pCO2 of blood to 75 mm of Hg.
helps in releasing more O2 to the epithelial tissues.
acts as a reserve during muscular exercise
is enough to keep oxyhaemoglobin saturation at 96%

243. Which one of the following characteristics is common to both in humans and adult frogs?

Internal fertilization
Ureotelic mode of excretion
Four - chambered heart
Nucleated RBCs

244. The maximum amount of electrolytes and water (70 - 80 percent) from the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed in which part of the nephron?

Distal convoluted tubule
Descending limb of loop of Henle
Proximal convoluted tubule
Ascending limb of loop of Henle

245. Select the correct statement with respect to locomotion in humans:

The vertebBP ‘ral column has 10 thoracic vertebrae.
The decreased level of progesterone causes osteoporosis in old people
Accumulation of uric acid crystals in joints causes their inflammation
The joint between adjacent vertebrae is a fibrous joint

246. Which one of the following pairs of chemical substances is correctly categorized?

Pepsin and prolactin - Two digestive enzymes secreted in stomach
Secretin and rhodopsin - Polypeptide hormones
Calcitonin and thymosin - Thyroid hormones
Troponin and myosin - Complex proteins in striated muscles

247. Which of the following is an example of negative feedback loop in humans?

Salivation of mouth at the sight of delicious food
Constriction of skin blood vessels and contraction of skeletal muscles when it is too cold
Secretion of tears after falling of sand particles into the eye.
Secretion of sweat glands and constriction of skin blood vessels when it is too hot

248. During the transmission of nerve impulse through a nerve fibre, the potential on the inner side of the plasma membrane has which type of electric change?

First negative, then positive and continue to be positive.
First negative, then positive and again back to negative.
First positive, then negative and continue to be positive
First positive, then negative and again back to positive

249. One of the examples of the action of the autonomous nervous system is

pupillary reflex
knee-jerk response
swallowing of food
peristalsis of the intestine

250. Test tube baby is one who

is born out of the technique of fertilization in vitro
is born out of artificial insemination
has been developed without fertilization
has undergone development in a test tube

251. Which one of the following statements is false in respect of viability of mammalian sperm?

Viability of sperm is determined by its motility.
Sperm is viable for only up to 24 hours.
Sperms must be concentrated in a thick suspension.
Survival of sperm depends on the pH of the medium and is more active in alkaline medium.

252. The test-tube Baby Programme employs which one of the following techniques

Intra uterine insemination (IUI)
Zygote intra fallopian transfer (ZIFT)
Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)
Gamete intra fallopian transfer (GIET)

253. Haploids are able to express both recessive and dominant alleles/mutations because there are

two alleles for each gene
only one allele in a gene
many alleles for each gene
only one allele for each gene in the individual

254. What contribute to the success of Mendel?

Observation of distinct inherited traits
Consideration of one character at one timeConsideration of one character at one time
Qualitative analysis of data
His knowledge of biology

255. The stage transferred into the uterus after induced fertilization of ova in the laboratory is

Embryo at 4 blastomere stage
Zygote
Morula
Embryo at 2 blastomere stage

256. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STD)?

A person may contact syphilis by sharing milk with one already suffering from the disease
Genital herpes and sickle-cell anaemia are both STD
Haemophilia is one of the STD
The chances of a 5 year boy contacting a STD are very little

257. Bateson used the terms coupling and repulsion for linkage and crossing over. Name the correct parent of coupling type alongwith its cross repulsion

Coupling AAbb, aaBB; Repulsion AaBb, aabb
Coupling AABB, aabb: Repulsion AAbb, aaBB
Coupling AABB, aabb; Repulsion AABB, Aabb
Coupling aaBB, aabb; Repulsion AABB, aabb

258. Haemophilia is more common in males because it is a

Dominant character carried by Y-chromosome
Dominant trait carried by X-chromosome
Recessive trait carried by X-chromosome
Recessive character carried by Y-chromosome

259. Which one is a hereditary disease?

leprosy
Phenylketonuria
Cataract
Blindness

260. Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colour blind. The probability of their daughter becoming colour blind is

261. which can have 21 possible combinations. If you are told that in one of these combinations, independent assortment is not observed in later studies, your reaction will be

Mendel might not have studied all the combinations
Later studies may be wrong
Independent assortment principle may be wrong
It is impossible

262. When a certain character is inherited only through female parent, it probably represents

multiple plastid inheritance
mendelian nuclear inheritance
cytoplasmic inheritance
incomplete dominance

263. Out of 8 ascospores formed in Neurospora the arrangement is 2a: 4a: 2a showing

Some meiosis
First generation division
No crossing over
Second generation division

264. Of a normal couple, half the sons are haemophilic while half the daughters are carriers. The gene is located on

Y-chromosome of father
both the X-chromosomes of mother
one X-chromosome of mother
X-chromosome of father

265. Two dominant nonallelic genes are 50 map units apart. The linkage is

cis type
absent/Incomplete
trans type
complete

266. When two genetic loci produce identical phenotypes in cis and trans position, they are considered to be

different genes
parts of same gene
pseudoalleles
multiple alleles

267. A person with 47 chromosomes due to an additional Y chromosome suffers from a condition called

Superfemale
Klinefelter's syndrome
Down's syndrome
Turner's syndrome

268. Barr body in human female is formed by

inactivation of maternal X-chromosome
inactivation of paternal X-chromosome
inactivation of either the paternal or maternal X-chromosome
inactivation of both X-chromosomes

269. An individual exhibiting both male and female sexual characteristics in the body is known as

gynandromorph
hermaphrodite
bisexual
intersex

270. H.J.Muller was awarded Nobel Prize for his

discovery that ionizing radiations can induce gene mutations
efforts to prevent the use of nuclear weapons.
work on gene mapping in Drosophila

271. A woman with two genes for haemophilia and a gene for colour blindness on one of the 'X' chromosomes marries a normal man. How will the progeny be

50% haemophilic, colour-blind sons and 50% haemophilic sons
All sons and daughters haemophilic and colour-blind
h a e m o p h i l i c a n d c o l o u r - b l i n d daughters
50% haemophilic daughters and 50% colour-blind daughters

272. Which character studied by Mendel in garden pea (Pisum sativum) was dominant

Green seed colour
Wrinkled seed shape
Terminal flower position
Green pod colour

273. Which one pair of the following parents is most likely to get a child who suffer from hemolytic disease of new born?

Rh-positive mother and Rh-negative father
Rh-positive mother and Rh-positive father
Rh-negative mother and Rh-positive father
Rh-negative mother and Rh-negative father

274. Mongoloid idiocy in humans is also known as

Klinefelter's syndrome
Turner's Syndrome
Tay Sachs disease
Down's Syndrome

275. Drosophila flies with XXY genotype are females but in case of humans, such individuals are abnormal males (Klinefelter's syndrome). This indicates that

In Drosophila, the Y chromosome is essential for sex determination
The Y chromosome has no role in sex determination
The Y chromosome is female determining in Drosophila
The Y chromosome is male determining in humans

276. How many base pairs are found in one genome of man?

2.8 × 10
4 × 10
7 × 104
3 × 10

277. The genes controlling the seven pea characters studied by Mendel are now known to be located on how many different chromosomes?

Seven
Five
Four
Six

278. Which one of the following traits of garden pea studied by Mendel was a recessive feature?

Axial flower position
Green pod colour
Round seed shape
Green seed colour

279. Haemophilia is more commonly seen in human males than in human females because:

this disease is due to a Y-linked recessive mutation
this disease is due to an X-linked dominant mutation
a greater proportion of girls die in infancy
this disease is due to an X-linked recessive mutation

280. Which of the following is not a hereditary disease?

Thalassemia
Cretinism
Cystic fibrosis
Haemophilia

281. Test cross involves

crossing the F1 hybrid with a double recessive genotype
crossing between two genotypes with recessive trait
crossing between two F1 hybrids
crossing between two genotypes with dominant trait

282. Sickle cell anaemia has not been eliminated from theAfrican population because

it provides immunity against malaria
it is controlled by recessive genes
it is not a fatal disease
it is controlled by dominant genes

283. Both sickle cell anemia and Huntington's chorea are

pollulant-induced disorders
bacteria - related diseases
congenital disorders
virus-related diseases

284. Cri-du-chat syndrome in humans is caused by the

loss of half of the long arm of chromosome 5
fertilization of an XX egg by a normal Y-bearing sperm
trisomy of 21st chromosome
loss of half of the short arm of chromosome 5

285. Two genes R and Y are located very close on the chromosomal linkage map of maize plant. When RRYY and rryy genotypes are hybridized, the F2 segregation will show

segregation in 3: 1 ratio
higher number of the recombinant types.
segregation in the expected 9: 3: 3: 1ratio
higher number of the parental types

286. A common test to find the genotype of a hybrid is by

studying the sexual behaviour of F1 progenies
crossing of one F2 progeny with male parent.
crossing of one F2 progeny with female parent
crossing of one F1 progeny with male parent

287. How many different kinds of gametes will be produced by a plant having the genotype AABbCC?

Nine
Three
Two
Four

288. Phenotype of an organism is the result of

environmental changes and sexual dimorphism
genotype and environment interactions
cytoplasmic effects and nutrition
mutations and linkages

289. Which one of the following conditions in humans. is correctly matched with its chromosomal abnormality/linkage?

Colour blindness - Y-linked
Downs syndrome - 44 autosomes + XO
Klinefelters syndrome-44 autosomes + XXY
Erythroblastosis foetalis - X-linked

290. A human male produces sperms with the genotypes AB, Ab, aB, and ab pertaining to two diallelic characters in equal proportions. What is the corresponding genotype of this person?

AABb
AaBb
AaBB
AABB

291. Inheritances of skin colour in humans is an example of

polygenic inheritance
chromosomal aberration
point mutation
codominance

292. The two polynucleotide chains in DNA are

antiparallel
parallel
discontinuous
semi-conservative

293. Which one of the following cannot be explained on the basis of Mendel’s Law of Dominance?

Out of one pair of factors one is dominant, and the other recessive
Factors occur in pairs
The discrete unit controlling a particular character is called a factor
Alleles do not show any blending and both the characters recover as such in F2 generation.

294. Point mutation involves:

duplication
insertion
change in single base pair
deletion

295. Select the incorrect statement from the following:

Small population size results in random genetic drift in a population
Linkage is an exception to the principle of independent assortment in heredity
Galactosemia is an inborn error of metabolism
Baldness is a sex -limited trait

296. Sickle cell anaemia is:

caused by a change in a single base pair of DNA
an autosomal linked dominant trait
caused by substitution of valine by glutamic acid in the beta globin chain of haemoglobin
characterized by elongated sickle like RBCs with a nucleus

297. The genetic defect - Adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency may be cured permanently by:

introducing bone marrow cells producing ADA into cells at early embryonic stages.
periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes having functional ADA cDNA.
administering adenosine deaminase activators.
enzyme replacement therapy.

298. Which one of the following conditions correctly describes the manner of determining the sex in the given example?

XO type of sex chromosomes determine male sex in grasshopper
Homozygous sex chromosomes (XX) produce male in Drosophila.
Homozygous sex chromosomes (ZZ) determine female sex in birds.
XO condition in human as found in Turner syndrome, determines female sex.

299. Infectious proteins are present in:

Prions
Satellite viruses
Gemini viruses
Viroids

300. Select the correct statement from the ones given below with respect to dihybrid cross.

Genes far apart on the same chromosome show very few recombinations
Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show very few recombinations
Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show higher recombinations
Genes loosely linked on the same chromosome show similar recombinations as the tightly linked ones

301. The genotype of a plant showing the dominant phenotype can be determined by:

dihybrid cross
back cross
test cross
pedigree analysis

302. When two unrelated individuals or lines are crossed, the performance of F1 hybrid is often superior to both parents. This phenomenon is called:

transformation
metamorphosis
heterosis
splicing

303. A test cross is carried out to

predict whether two traits are linked.
determine two species or varieties will breed successfully.
determine the genotype of a plant at F2.
assess the number of alleles of a gene.

304. Which one of the following is a wrong statement regarding mutations?

Cancer cells commonly show chromosomal aberrations.
Change in a single base pair of DNA does not cause mutation.
Deletion and insertion of base pairs cause frame-shift mutations.
UV and Gamma rays are mutagens.

305. A certain road accident patient with unknown blood group needs immediate blood transfusion. His one doctor friend at once offers his blood.What was the blood group of the donor?

Blood group AB
Blood group A
Blood group B
Blood group O

306. Which one of the following conditions of the zygotic cell would lead to the birth of a normal human female child?

Only one Y chromosome
One X and one Y chromosome
Two X chromosomes
Only one X chromosome

307. Which of the following statements is not true of two genes that show 50% recombination frequency?

T h e g e n e s s h o w i n d e p e n d e n t assortment
The genes may be on different chromosomes
The genes are tightly linked
If the genes are present on the same chromosome, they undergo more than one crossovers in every meiosis

308. If both parents are carriers for thalassemia, which is an autosomal recessive disorder, what are the chances of pregnancy resulting in an affected child?

25%
no chance
50%
100%

309. Which Mendelian idea is depicted by a cross in which the F1 generation resembles both the parents?

Inheritance of one gene
Incomplete dominance
Law of dominance
Co-dominance

310. Down’s syndrome in humans is due to

Three ‘X’ chromosomes
Monosomy
Two ‘Y’ chromosomes
Three copies of chromosome 21

311. In our society women are blamed for producing female children. Choose the correct answer for the sex-determination in humans

Due to some defect like aspermia in man
Due to the genetic make up of the egg
Due to the genetic make up of the particular sperm which fertilizes the egg
Due to some defect in the women

312. Which one is the incorrect statement with regards to the importance of pedigree analysis?

It confirms that DNA is the carrier of genetic information
It confirms that the trait is linked to one of the autosome
It helps to trace the inheritance of a specific trait
It helps to understand whether the trait in question is dominant or recessive

313. Genetic variation in a population arises due to

Recombination only
Reproductive isolation and selection
Mutations only
Mutations as well as recombination

314. The incorrect statement with regard to Haemophilia is:

It is a dominant disease
It is a sex-linked disease
It is a recessive disease
A single protein involved in the clotting of blood is affected

315. The process of transfer of genetic information from DNA to RNA/formation of RNA from DNA is

transcription
translocation
transversion
translation

316. The basis for DNA fingerprinting is

phenotypic differences between individuals
knowledge of human karyotype
occurrence of restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)
availability of cloned DNA

317. The eukaryotic genome differs from the prokaryotic genome because

the DNA is complexed with histones in prokaryotes
the DNA is circular and single stranded in prokaryotes
genes in the former case are organized into operons
repetitive sequences are present in eukaryotes

318. DNA fingerprinting refers to

analysis of DNA samples using imprinting devices
techniques us ed for identification of fingerprints of individuals
molecular analysis of profiles of DNA samples
techniques used for molecular analysis of different specimens of DNA

319. Genetic map is one that

establishes sites of the genes on a chromosome
show the stages during the cell division
shows the distribution of various species in a region
establishes the various stages in gene evolution

320. The eukaryotic genome differs from the prokaryotic genome because

the DNA is complexed with histones in prokaryotes
the DNA is circular and single stranded in prokaryotes
genes in the former case are organized into operons
repetitive sequences are present in eukaryotes

321. repetitive sequences are present in eukaryotes

5-bromouracil
5-methylcytosine
Guanine
Adenine

322. In eukaryotes, after transcription of mRNA, some of its nucleotides are removed before it is translated into polypeptide.The nucleotides which are removed from mRNA are called

Guanine
introns
exons
unusual bases

323. Degeneration of a genetic code is attributed to the

first member of a codon
entire codon
third member of a codon
second member of a codon

324. In the genetic code dictionary, how many codons are used to code for all the 20 essential amino acids?

325. In transgenics, expression of transgene in target tissue is determined by

transgene
reporter
enhancer
promoter

326. A sequential expression of a set of human genes

DNA sequence
transfer RNA
transfer RNA
ribosome

327. The length of DNA molecule greatly exceeds the dimensions of the nucleus in eukaryotic cells. How is this DNA accommodated?

DNase digestion
deletion of non-essential genes.
super-coiling in nucleosomes
through elimination of repititive DNA

328. What is not true for genetic code?

It is degenerate
A codon in mRNA is read in a non contiguous fashion
It is nearly universal
It is unambiguous

329. T.O. Diener discovered a:

infectious protein
free infectious RNA
free infectious DNA
bacteriophage

330. Haploids are more suitable for mutation studies than the diploids. This is because

mutagens penetrate in haploids more effectively than diploids
all mutations, whether dominant or recessive are expressed in haploids
haploids are reproductively more stable than diploids
haploids are more abundant in nature than diploids

331. Which one of the following pairs of nitrogenous bases of nucleic acids, is wrongly matched with the category mentioned against it?

Uracil, Cytosine - Pyrimidines
Adenine, Thymine - Purines
Thymine, Uracil - Pyrimidines
Guanine, Adenine - Purines

332. Which one of the following sets includes only the vestigial structures in man?

Wisdom teeth, mammary glands, coccyx, patella
Coccyx, body hair, ear ossicles, vermiform appendix
Body hair, olecranon process, coccyx, patella
Coccyx, nictitating membrane, vermiform appendix, ear muscles

333. Identify the correct sequence in which the following substances have appeared during the course of evolution of life on earth

Ammonia, amino acids, proteins, nucleic acids
Amino acids, ammonia, phosphates, nucleic acids
Glucose, amino acids, nucleic acids, proteins
Water, amino acids, nucleic acids, enzymes

334. The kind of evolution in which two species of different geneology come to resemble one another closely, is termed as

parallel evolution
retrogressive evolution
progressive evolution
convergent evolution

335. Which one of the following includes all homologous organs?

The fore limb of frog, wing of bird and fore limb of rabbit
The wing of bird, wing of bat and wing of "flying" lizard
The wing of butterfly, wing of bird, wing (patagia) of bat
The thoracic leg of cockroach, the hind leg of frog and fore leg of rabbit

336. Which one of the following statements about fossil human species is correct?

Neanderthal man and Cro-Magnon man did exist for sometime together
Homo erectus was preceded by Homo habilis
Fossils of Homo neanderthalensis have been found recently in South America
Australopithecus fossils have been found in Australia

337. Common origin of man and chimpanzee is best shown by

Cranial capacity
Dental formula
Banding pattern in chromosomes number 3 and 6
Binocular vision

338. Which one of the following is regarded as the direct ancestor of modern man?

Ramapithecus
Australopithecus
Homo erectus
Homo habilis

339. Which one of the following statements is correct?

Homo erectus is the ancestor of man
Australopithecus is the real ancestor of modern man
Cro-Magnon man's fossil has been found in Ethiopia
Neanderthal man is the direct ancestor of Homo sapiens

340. Diversity in the type of beaks of finches adapted to different feeding habits on the Galapagos Islands, as observed by Darwin, provides evidence for

Intraspecific competition
Origin of Species by natural selection
Intraspecific variations
Interspecific competition

341. Life cannot originate from inorganic materials at present because of

very low atmospheric temperature
high degree of environmental pollution
a very high amount of oxygen in the atmosphere
absence of raw materials

342. The age of the fossil of Dryopithecus on the geological time scale is

25 × 106 years back
75 × 106 years back
5 × 106 years back
50 × 106 years back

343. Which is not a vestigial part in humans?

Finger nails
Coccyx
Segmental muscles of abdomen
Third molar

344. Darwin’s theory of pangenesis shows similarity with theory of inheritance of acquired characters then what shall be correct according to it?

Size of organs increase with ageing
There should be come physical basis of inheritance
Useful organs become strong and developed while useless organs become extinct. These organs help in struggle for survival
Development of organs is due to will power

345. Which of the following is correct order of evolutionary history of man?

Peking, Neanderthal, Homo sapiens, Cromagnon
Peking man, Neanderthel, Homo sapiens, Heidelberg man
Peking man, Homo sapiens, Neanderthal, Cro-magnon
Pe k i n g m a n, H e i d e l b e r g m a n, Neanderthal, Cro-magnon

346. Which of following is closest relative of man?

Gorilla
Gibbon
Chimpanzee
Orangutan

347. Industrial melanism is an example of

drug resistance
protective resemblance with the surroundings
defensive adaptation of skin against ultraviolet radiations
darkening of skin due to smoke from industries

348. Which one of the following sequences was proposed by Darwin and Wallace for organic evolution?

Overproduction, variations, constancy of population size, natural selection
Overproduction, constancy of population size, variations, natural selection
Variations, natural selection, overproduction, constancy of population size
Variations, constancy of population size, overproduction, natural selection

349. In recent years, DNA sequences (nucleotide sequence) of mt-DNA and Y chromosomes were considered for the study of human evolution, because

they are small, and therefore, easy to study
their structure is known in greater detail
they can be studied from the samples of fossil remains
they are uniparental in origin and do not take part in recombination

350. What kind of evidence suggested that man is more closely related with chimpanzee than with other hominoid apes?

C o m p a r i s o n o f c h r o m o s o m e s morphology only
Evidence from DNA extracted from sex chromosomes, autosomes and mitochondria
Evidence from DNA from sex chromosomes only
Evidence from fossil remains, and the fossil mitochondrial DNA alone

351. Presence of gills in the tadpole of frog indicates that

fishes evolved from frog-like ancestors
fishes were amphibious in the past
frogs evolved from gilled ancestors
frogs will have gills in future

352. Random genetic drift in a population probably results from

highly genetically variable individuals
constant low mutation rate
small population size
interbreeding within this population

353. Darwin in his 'Natural Selection Theory' did not believe in any role of which one of the following in organic evolution?

Parasites and predators as natural enemies
Struggle for existence
Survival of the fittest
Discontinuous variations

354. Which one of the following describes correctly the homologous structures?

Organs with anatomical similarities, but performing different functions
Organs that have no function now, but had an important function in ancestors
Organs that have no function now, but had an important function in ancestors
Organs with anatomical dissimilarities, but performing same function

355. Animals have the innate ability to escape from predation. Examples for the same are given below. Select the incorrect example.

Melanism in moths
Colour change in Chameleon
Enlargement of body size by swallowing air in puffer fish
Poison fangs in snakes

356. Which of the following is the relatively most accurate method for dating of fossils?

Potassium-argon method
Uranium-lead method
Radio-carbon method
Electron-spin resonance method

357. When two species of different genealogy come to resemble each other as a result of adaptation, the phenomenon is termed

co-evolution
divergent evolution
microevolution
convergent evolution

358. Which one of the following is not a living fossil?

Archaeopteryx
King crab
Sphenodon
Peripatus

359. Which one of the following statement is correct?

All plant and animal cells are totipotent
Stem cells are specialize cells.
There is no evidence of the existence of gills during embryogenesis of mammals
Ontogeny repeats phylogeny

360. Among the human ancestors the brain size was more that 1000 cc in

Ramapithecus
Homo neanderthalensis
Homo erectus
Homo habilis

361. One of the important consequences of geographical isolation is

speciation through reproductive isolation
no change in the isolated fauna.
preventing speciation
random creation of new species

362. Adaptive radiation refers to

migration of members of a species to different geographical areas
adaptations due to geographical isolation.
evolution of different species from a common ancestor
power of adaptation in an individual to a variety of environments

363. Industrial melanism as observed in peppered moth proves that

the lighter-form moth has no selective advantage either in polluted industrial area or non-polluted area
the true black melanic forms arise by a recurring random mutation
the melanic form of the moth has no selective advantage over lighter form in industrial area
melanism is a pollution-generated feature

364. What is common to whale, seal and shark?

Convergent evolution
Seasonal migration.
Thick subcutaneous fat
Homoiotherm

365. Which one of the following is a matching pair of a body feature and the animal possessing it?

Pharyngeal gill slits - Chameleon absent in embryo
Post-end tail - Octopus.
Ventral central - Leech nervous system
Ventral heart - Scorpion

366. Evolution of different species in a given area starting from a point and spreading to other geographical areas is known as:

Natural selection
Divergent evolution
Adaptive radiation
Migration

367. What was the most significant trend in evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from his ancestors?

Shortening of jaws
lncreasing brain capacity
Upright posture
Binocular vision

368. Darwin’s finches are a good example of:

Connecting link
Convergent evolution
Industrial melanism
Adaptive radiation

369. Peripatus is a connecting link between:

Annelida and Arthropoda
Ctenophora and Platyhelminthes
Mollusca and Echinodermata
Coelenterata and Porifera

370. Which one of the following is incorrect about the characteristics of protobionts (coacervates and microspheres) as envisaged in the biogenic origin of life?

They could separate combinations of molecules from the surroundings
They could maintain an internal environment
They were able to reproduce
They were partially isolated from the surroundings

371. The idea of mutations was brought forth by

Hugo de Vries, who worked on evening primrose.
Charles Darwin, who observed a wide variety of organisms during sea voyage.
Gregor Mendel, who worked on Pisum sativum
Hardy Weinberg, who worked on allele frequencies in a population.

372. What was the most significant trend in the evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from his ancestors?

Binocular vision
Upright posture
Shortening of jaws
Increasing cranial capacity

373. The finch species of Galapagos Islands are grouped according to their food sources. Which of the following is not a finch food?

Carrion
Tree buds
Seeds
Insects

374. Random unidirectional change in allele frequencies that occurs by chance in all populations and especially in small populations is known as

Migration
Genetic drift
Mutation
Natural selection

375. Which one of the following depresses brain activity and produced feelings of calmness, relaxation and drowsiness?

Valium
Hashish
Morphine
Amphetamines

376. To which type of barriers under innate immunity, do the saliva in the mouth and the tears from the eyes, belong?

Cellular barriers
Physical barriers
Cytokine barriers
Physiological barriers

377. Which one of the following is the correct statement regarding the particular psychotropic drug specified?

Opium stimulates nervous system and causes hallucinations
Barbiturates cause relaxation and temporary euphoria
Hashish causes after thought perceptions and hallucinations
Morphine leads to delusions and disturbed emotions

378. A person likely to develop tetanus is immunised by administering

wide spectrum antibiotics
dead germs
preformed antibodies
weakened germs

379. Where will you look for the sporozoites of the malarial parasite?

Red blood corpuscles of humans suffering from malaria
Salivary glands of freshly moulted female Anopheles mosquito
Saliva of infected female Anopheles mosquito
Spleen of infected humans

380. Widal Test is carried out to test:

Diabetes mellitus
Typhoid fever
Malaria
HIV/AIDS

381. Motile zygote of Plasmodium occurs in:

Salivary glands of Anopheles
Human liver
Gut of female Anopheles
Human RBCs

382. Cirrhosis of liver is caused by the chronic intake of

Alcohol
Opium
Tobacco (Chewing)
Cocaine

383. Which one of the following is not a property of cancerous cells whereas the remaining three are?

They do not remain confined in the area of formation.
They show contact inhibition.
They compete with normal cells for vital nutrients.
They divide in an uncontrolled manner

384. Identify the site where Wuchereria bancrofti is normally found on human body

Muscles of the legs
Skin between the fingers
Lymphatic vessels of the lower limbs
Blood vessels of the thigh region

385. The cell-mediated immunity inside the human body is carried out by:

Thrombocytes
T-lymphocytes
B-lymphocytes
Erythrocytes

386. The silkworm silk is the product of

cuticle of the adult
salivary gland of the adult
cuticle of the larva
salivary gland of the larva

387. One of the major difficulties in the biological control of insect pests is the

method is less effective as compared with the use of insecticides
the predator develops a preference to other diets and may itself become a pest.
practical difficulty of introducing the predator to specific areas
predator does not always survive when transferred to a new environment

388. The rotenone is

a bioherbicide
a natural insecticide
an insect hormone
a natural herbicide

389. Biological control component is central to advanced agricultural production. Which of the following is used as a third generation pesticide?

Pathogens
Insect repellants
Insect hormone analogues
Pheromones

390. Lathyrism which is caused by consumption of Khesari dal is a disease characterised by

retardation of body growth, precocious puberty and renal dysfunction
gross skeletal deformation and thinning of collagen fibres and fibrils
reproductive failure, susceptibility to diabetes mellitus and skeletal abnormalities
mental retardation, delay in the onset of puberty and cardiovascular abnormalities

391. The reason why vegetatively reproducing crop plants are best suited for maintaining hybrid vigour is that

they have a longer life span
they can be easily propagated
once a desired hybrid has been produced there are few chances of losing it
they are more resistant to diseases

392. Honey is

alkaline
acidic when fresh and alkaline when old
acidic
neutral

393. Cellular totipotency is demonstrated by

only gymnosperm cells
all eukaryotic cells
only bacterial cells
all plant cells

394. Which of the following plants are used as green manure in crop fields and in sandy soils?

Crotalaria juncea and Alhagi camelorum
Saccharum munja and Lantana camara
Dichanthium annulatum and Azolla nilotica
Calotropis procera and Phyllanthus niruri

395. Which one of the following proved effective for biological control of nematodal disease in plants?

Pseudomonas cepacia
Paecilomyces lilacinus
Pisolithus tinctorius
Gliocladium virens

396. Consider the following four measures (a-d) that could be taken to successfully grow chickpea in an area where bacteri blight disease is common

Control of the insect vector of the disease pathogen
Use of varieties resistant to the disease Which two of the above measures can control the disease?
Spray with Bordeaux mixture
Use of only disease-free seeds

397. Which one of the following is a viral disease of poultry?

New castle disease
Salmonellosis.
Coryza
Pasteurellosis

398. Green revolution in India occurred during

1970.s
1950.s
1960.s
1980.s

399. Which one of the following is a case of wrong matching

Vector DNA -Site for t-RNA synthesis
Callus - Unorganised mass of cell produced in tissue culture
Somatic hybridization - Fusion of two diverse cells
Micropropagation - in vitro production of plants in large numbers.

400. Which part would be most suitable for raising virus-free plants for micropropagation?

Vascular tissue
Node
Bark
Meristem

401. The process of RNA interference has been used in the development of plants resistant to

fungi
insects
nematodes
viruses

402. Which one thing is not true about antibiotics?

Mango
Groundnut
Rice
Wheat

403. Maximum nutritional diversity is found in the group.

Animalia
Plantae
Fungi
Monera

404. Polyethylene glycol method is used for

seedless fruit production
gene transfer without a vector
biodiesel production
energy production from sewage

405. The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with the plasmid vector became possible with

Endonucleases
Exonucleases
DNA ligase
DNA polymerase

406. Gel electrophoresis is used for

separation of DNA fragments according to their size
isolation of DNA molecule
cutting of DNA into fragments
construction of recombinant DNA by joining with cloning vectors

407. Introduction of food plants developed by genetic engineering is not desirable because

these products are less tasty as compared to the already existing products
there is danger of entry of viruses and toxins with introduced crop
economy of developing countries may suffer
this method is costly

408. Microbe used for biocontrol of pest butterfly caterpillars is

Saccharomyces cerevisiae
Streptococcus sp.
Trichoderma sp.
Bacillus thuringiensis

409. Restriction endonucleases are enzymes which

recognize a specific nucleotide sequence for binding of DNA ligase
remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA molecule
make cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule
restrict the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase

410. DNA or RNA segment tagged with a radioactive molecule is called

Probe
Plasmid
Vector
Clone

411. Which one of the following is used as vector for cloning genes into higher organisms?

Salmonella typhimurium
Retrovirus
Baculovirus
Rhizopus nigricans

412. Which one of the given options correctly identifies its certain component (s)?

rop-reduced osmotic pressure
ampR, tetR - antibiotic resistance genes
ori - original restriction enzyme
Hind III, EcoRI - selectable markers

413. Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals which contain insecticidal protein.

is coded by several genes including the gene cry
does not kill the carrier bacterium which is itself resistant to this toxin
binds with epithelial cells of midgut of the insect pest ultimately killing it

414. In genetic engineering, the antibiotics are used

to select healthy vectors.
as sequences from where replication starts.
as selectable markers.
to keep the cultures free of infection.

415. Maximum application of animal cell culture technology today is in the production of

insulin
vaccines
edible proteins
interferons

416. Which one of the following is commonly used in transfer of foreign DNA into crop plants?

Agrobacterium tumefaciens
Trichoderma harzianum
Meloidogyne incognita
Penicillium expansum

417. Main objective of production/use of herbicide resistant GM crops is to

eliminate weeds from the field without the use of herbicides
reduce herbicide accumulation in food articles for health safety
eliminate weeds from the field without the use of manual labour
encourage eco-friendly herbicides

418. Which one of the following techniques made it possible to genetically engineer living organism?

X-ray diffraction
Hybridization
Recombinant DNA techniques
Heavier isotope labelling

419. In history of biology, human genome project led to the development of:

biomonitoring
biosystematics
biotechnology
bioinformatics

420. The nature of climax community ultimately depends on

bed rock
pool of available nutrients.
climate
soil organisms

421. Human population growth in India

tends to reach a zero population growth as in case of some animal species
can be regulated by following the national programme of family planning
tends to follow a sigmoid curve as in case of many other animal species
can be reduced by permitting natural calamities and enforcing birth control measures

422. In India, human population is heavily weighed towards the younger age groups as a result of

long life span of many individuals and low birth rate
long life span of many individuals and high birth rate
short life span of many individuals and low birth rate
short life span of many individuals and high birth rate

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