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1. Angiosperms have dominated the land flora primarily because of their
  • nature of self pollination
  • power of adaptability in diverse habitat
  • domestication by man
  • property of producing large number of seeds
2. Which one of the following aspects is an exclusive characteristic of living things?
  • Perception of events happening in the environment and their memory
  • Isolated metabolic reactions occur in vitro
  • Increase in mass by accumulation of material both on surface as well as internally.
  • Increase in mass from inside only
3. Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its particular named taxonomic category?
  • Humans - primata, the family
  • Tiger - tigris, the species
  • Housefly - musca, an order
  • Cuttle fish - mollusca, a class
4. Which one of the following is considered important in the development of seed habit?
  • Haplontic life cycle
  • dependent sporophyte
  • Free -living gametophyte
  • Heterospory
5. Which one of the following is not a correct statement?
  • Key is taxonomic aid for identification of specimens.
  • Botanical gardens have collection of living plants for reference.
  • Herbarium houses dried, pressed and preserved plant specimens.
  • A museum has collection of photographs of plants and animals
6. Which one of the following organisms is scientifically correctly named, correctly printed according to the International Rules of Nomenclature and correctly described?
  • Felis tigris - The Indian tiger, well protected in Gir forests.
  • Musca domestica - The common house lizard, a reptile.
  • E.coli - Full name Entamoeba coli, a commonly occurring bacterium in human intestine.
  • Plasmodium falciparum – A protozoan pathogen causing the most serious type of malaria.
7. Lichens indicate SO2 pollution because they
  • are sensitive to SO2
  • show association between algae and fungi
  • flourish in SO2 rich environment
  • grow faster than others
8. The infective stage of malarial parasite Plasmodium that enters human body is
  • trophozoite
  • merozoite
  • minuta form
  • sporozoite
9. The plasmids pesent in the bacterial cells are
  • linear double helical DNA molecules
  • circular double helical DNA molecules
  • linear double helical RNA molecules
  • circular double helical RNA molecules
10. Which fungal disease spreads by seed and flowers?
  • Covered smut of barley
  • Loose smut of wheat
  • Soft rot of potato
  • Corn stunt
11. Which of the following statements is not true for retroviruses?
  • DNA is not present at any stage in the life cycle of retroviruses
  • The genetic material in mature retroviruses is RNA
  • Retroviruses are causative agents for certain kinds of cancer in man
  • Retroviruses carry gene for RNAdependent DNA polymerase
12. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched
  • Spirulina - Single cell protein
  • Streptomyces - Antibiotic
  • Rhizobium - Biofertilizer
  • Serratia - Drug addiction
13. Lichens are well known combination of an alga and a fungus where fungus has
  • a parasitic relationship with the alga
  • a saprophytic relationship with the alga
  • a symbiotic relationship with the alga
  • an epiphytic relationship with the alga
14. Tobacco mosaic virus is a tubular filament of size
  • 300 × 5 nm
  • 300 × 20 nm
  • 700 × 30 nm
  • 300 × 10 nm
15. Which one of the following statements about viruses is correct?
  • Viruses are obligate parasites
  • All viruses contain both RNA and DNA
  • Nucleic acid of viruses is known as capsid
  • Viruses possess their own metabolic system
16. For retting of jute the fermenting microbe used is
  • Helicobactor pylori
  • Methophilic bacteria
  • Streptococcus lactin
  • Butyric acid bacteria
17. All of the following statements concerning the Actinomycetes filamentous soil bacterium Frankia are correct except that Frankia:
  • Cannot fix nitrogen in the free-living state.
  • Forms specialized vesicles in which the nitrogenase is protected from oxygen by a chemical barrier involving triterpene hopanoids
  • Can induce root nodules on many plant species
  • Like Rhizobium, it usually infects its host plant through root hair deformation and stimulates cell proliferation in the host’s cortex
18. Auxopores and hormocysts are formed, respectively, by
  • Several cyanobacteria and several diatoms
  • Some diatoms and several cyanobacteria
  • Several diatoms and a few cyanobacteria.
  • Some cyanobacteria and diatoms
19. Viruses that infect bacteria, multiply and cause their lysis, are called
  • lytic
  • lysozymes
  • lysogenic
  • lipolytic
20. The most thoroughly studied fact of the known bacteriaplant interactions is the
  • gall formation on certain angiosperms by Agrobacterium
21. The thalloid body of a slime mould (Myxomycetes) is known as
  • mycelium
  • plasmodium
  • protonema
  • fruiting body
22. Thermococcus, Methanococcus and Methanobacterium exemplify:
  • Bacteria whose DNA is relaxed or positively supercoiled but which have a cytoskeleton as well as mitochondria
  • Archaebacteria that contain protein homologous to eukaryotic core histones
  • Bacteria that contain a cytoskeleton and ribosomes
  • Archaebacteria that lack any histones resembling those found in eukaryotes but whose DNA is negatively supercoiled
23. In the light of recent classification of living organisms into three domains of life (bacteria, archaea and eukarya), which one of the following statements is true about archaea ?
  • Archaea completely differ from both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
  • Archaea resemble eukarya in all respects
  • Archaea completely differ from prokaryotes.
  • Archaea have some novel features that are absent in other prokaryotes and eukaryotes
24. Bacterial leaf blight of rice is caused by a species of
  • Alternaria
  • Xanthomonas
  • Erwinia
  • Pseudomonas
25. Which one of the following sets of items in the options 1 - 4 are correctly categorized with one exception in it? Items- Category- Exception
  • Plasmodium, Cuscuta, Trypanosoma -Protozoan parasites- Cuscuta
  • UAA, UAG, UGA -Stop codons -UAG
  • Typhoid, Pneumonia, Diphtheria -Bacterial diseases -Diphtheria
  • Kangaroo, Koala, Wombat -Australian marsupials -Wombat
26. In the five-kingdom classification, Chlamydomonas and Chlorella have been included in
  • plantae
  • protista
  • monera
  • algae
27. How many organisms in the list given below are autotrophs? Lactobacillus, Nostoc, Chara, Nitrosomonas, Nitrobacter, Streptomyces, Saccharomyces, Trypanosomes, Porphyra, Wolffia
  • Six
  • Four
  • Three
  • Five
28. Which of the following plants produces seeds but not flowers?
  • Peepal
  • Maize
  • Pinus
  • Mint
29. Peat Moss is used as a packing material for sending flowers and live plants to distant places because
  • it serves as a disinfectant
  • it is hygroscopic
  • it is easily available
  • It reduces transpiration
30. In a moss the sporophyte
  • manufactures food for itself as well as for the gametophyte
  • produces gametes that give rise to the gametophyte
  • is partially parasitic on the gametophyte
  • arises from a spore produced from the gametophyte
31. If you are asked to classify the various algae into distinct groups, which of the following characters you should choose?
  • chemical composition of the cell wall
  • nature of stored food materials in the cell
  • types of pigments present in the cell.
  • structural organization of thallus
32. In the prothallus of a vascular cryptogam, the antherozoids and eggs mature a different times. As a result
  • self-fertilization is prevented
  • there is high degree of sterility
  • there is no change in success rate of fertilization
  • one can conclude that the plant is apomictic
33. Conifers differ from grasses in the
  • formation of endosperm before fertilization
  • lack of xylem tracheids
  • production of seeds from ovules
  • absence of pollen tubes
34. Which one of the following plants is monoecious?
  • Papaya
  • Pinus
  • Marchantia
  • Cycas
35. Necturus is
  • Mud Puppy
  • Hell Bender
  • Blind Worm
  • Congo Eel
36. In contrast to Annelids the Platyhelminths show:
  • Radial symmetry
  • Absence of body cavity
  • Presence of pseudocoel
  • Bilaterial symmetry
37. From the following statements select the wrong one.
  • Millepedes have two pairs of appendages in each segment of the body
  • Prawn has two pairs of antennae
  • Animals belonging to Phylum Porifera are exclusively marine
  • Nematocysts are characteristic of the Pylum Cnidaria
38. Which one of the following characters is not typical of the class Mammalia?
  • Ten pairs of cranial nerves
  • Thecodont dentition
  • Seven cervical vertebrae
  • Alveolar lungs
39. In Arthropoda, head and thorax are often fused to form cephalothorax, but in which one of the following classes, is the body divided into head, thorax and abdomen?
  • Crustacea
  • Insecta
  • Arachnida and Crustacea
  • Myriapoda
40. Two common characters found in centipede, cockroach and crab are
  • Book lungs and antennae
  • Jointed legs and chitinous exoskeleton
  • Compound eyes and anal cerci
  • Green gland and tracheae
41. Which one of the following is the true description about an animal concerned?
  • Rat - Left kidney is slightly higher in position than the right one
  • Earthworm - The alimentary canal consists of a sequence of pharynx, oesophagus, stomach, gizzard and intestine
  • Cockroach - 10 pairs of spiracles (2 pairs on thorax and 8 pairs on abdomen)
  • Frog - Body divisible into three regions - head, neck and trunk
42. Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of phylum Annelida?
  • Pseudocoelom
  • Closed circulatory system
  • Ventral nerve cord
  • Segmentation
43. Which one of the following groups of three animals each is correctly matched with their one characteristic morphological feature? Animals Morphological - feature
  • Scorpion, Spider, - Ventral solid central Cockroach nervous system
  • Liver fluke, Sea - Bilateral anemone, Sea symmetry cucumber
  • Cockroach, - Metameric Locust, Taenia segmentation
  • Centipede, Prawn- Jointed appendages Sea urchin
44. Ascaris is characterized by
  • presence of true coelom but absence of metamerism
  • absence of true coelom but presence of metamerism
  • presence of true coelom and metamerism (metamerisation)
  • presence of neither true coelom nor metamerism
45. Which one of the following phyla is correctly matched with its two general characteristics?
  • Echinodermata - Pentamerous radial symmetry and mostly internal fertilization
  • Arthropoda - Body divided into head, thorax and abdomen and respiration by tracheae
  • Mollusca - Normally oviparous and development through a trochophore or veliger larva
  • Chordata - Notochord at some stage and separate anal and urinary openings to the outside
46. What will you look for to identify the sex of the following?
  • Female cockroach-Anal cerci
  • Female Ascaris- Sharply curved posterior end
  • Male shark-Claspers borne on pelvic fins
  • Male frog- A copulatory pad on the first digit of the hind limb
47. Which one of the following statements about certain given animals is correct?
  • Insects are pseudocoelomates
  • Round worms (Aschelminthes) are pseudocoelomates
  • Flat worms (Platyhelminthes) are coelomates
  • Molluscs are acoelomates
48. Which one of the following kinds of animals are triploblastic?
  • Ctenophores
  • Flat worms
  • Corals
  • Sponges
49. Which one of the following statements about all the four of Spongilla, Leech, Dolphin and Penguin is correct?
  • Spongilla has special collared cells called choanocytes, not found in the remaining three
  • Penguin is homeothermic while the remaining three are poikilothermic
  • All are bilaterally symmetrical
  • Leech is a fresh water form while all others are marine
50. One example of animals having a single opening to the outside that serves both as mouth as well as anus is:
  • Ascidia
  • Octopus
  • Fasciola
  • Asterias
51. Which one of the following statements is totally wrong about the occurrence of notochord, while the other three are correct?
  • It is absent throughout life in humans from the very beginning
  • It is present only in larval tail in Ascidians
  • It is present throughout life in Amphioxus
  • It is replaced by a vertebral column in adult frog
52. In which one of the folllowing, the genus name, its two characters and its class/phylum are correctly matched? Genus name --Two characters --Class/ phylum
  • Pteropus --(i) Skin possesses hair Mammalia (ii) Oviparous--Mamalia
  • Ascaris --(i) Body segmented Annelida (ii) Males and females distinct -- Anelida
  • Aurelia --(i) Cnidoblasts Coelenterata (ii) Organ level of organization-- Coelenterata
  • Salamandra --(i) A tympanum represents ear Amphibia (ii) Fertilization is external --Amphibia
53. Which one of the following groups of animals is correctly matched with its one characteristic feature without even a single exception?
  • Reptilia: possess 3 - chambered heart with one incompletely divided ventricle
  • Chondrichthyes: possess cartilagious endoskeleton
  • Mammalia: give birth to young one.
  • Chordata: possess a mouth provided with an upper and lower jaw
54. Which one of the following have the highest number of species in nature?
  • Birds
  • Fungi
  • Angiosperms
  • Insects
55. Which group of animals belong to the same phylum?
  • Sponge, Sea anemone, Starfish
  • Earthworm, Pinworm, Tapeworm
  • Malarial parasite, Amoeba, Mosquito
  • Prawn, Scorpion, Locusta
56. Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its one characteristics and the taxon? Animal Characteristic Taxon
  • Sea Anemone -- Triploblastic -- Cnidaria
  • Duckbilled -- Oviparous -- Mammalian platypus
  • Silverfish-- Pectoral and Chordata -- Pelvic fins
  • Millipede -- Ventral nerve -- Arachnida cord
57. The characteristics of class Reptilia are:
  • Fresh water animals with bony endoskeleton, air-bladder to regulate buoyancy
  • Body covered with dry and cornified skin, scales over the body are epidermal, they do not have external ears
  • Marine animals with cartilaginous endoskeleton, body covered with placoid scales
  • Body covered with moist skin which is devoid of scales, the ear is represented by a tympanum, alimentary canal, urinary and reproductive tracts open into a common cloaca
58. Which of the following are correctly matched with respect to their taxonomic classification?
  • Spiny anteater, sea urchin, sea cucumberEchinodermata
  • Centipede, millipede, spider, scorpionInsecta
  • Flying fish, cuttlefish, silverfish-Pisces
  • House fly, butterfly, tse tse fly, silverfishInsecta
59. Match the name of the animal (column I), with one characteristics (column II), and the phylum/class (column III) to which it belongs :
  • Adamsia -- radially Porifera -- symmetrical
  • Ichthyophis -- terrestrial -- Reptilia
  • Petromyzon-- ectoparasite -- Cyclostomata
  • Limulus -- body Pisces covered by chitinous -- exoskeleton
60. Perisperm is
  • peripheral part of endosperm
  • remnant of endosperm
  • disintegrated secondary nucleus
  • persistent nucellus
61. Micropyle of seed is involved in the passage of
  • water
  • male gamete
  • gases
  • pollen tube
62. Chlorenchyma is known to develop in the
  • mycelium of a green mould such as Aspergillus
  • pollen tube of Pinus
  • spore capsule of a moss
  • cytoplasm of Chlorella
63. The apical meristem of the root is present
  • only in tap roots
  • in all the roots
  • only in adventitious roots
  • only in radicals
64. The cells of the quiescent centre are characterised by
  • having light cytoplasm and small nuclei
  • dividing regularly to add to tunica
  • dividing regularly to add to the corpus
  • having dense cytoplasm and prominent nuclei
65. Which of the following statements is true?
  • Vessels are unicellular with wide lumen
  • Vessels are multicellular with narrow lumen
  • Tracheids are unicellular with wide lumen
  • Tracheids are multicellular with narrow lumen
66. Which one of the following is resistant to enzyme action?
  • Pollen exine
  • Cork
  • Leaf cuticle
  • Wood fibre
67. Vascular tissues in flowering plants develop from:
  • periblem
  • phellogen
  • dermatogen
  • plerome
68. The length of different internodes in a culm of sugarcane is variable because of
  • size of leaf lamina at the node below each internode
  • shoot apical meristem
  • intercalary meristem
  • position of axillary buds
69. Which one of the following is not a lateral meristem?
  • Phellogen
  • Intrafascicular cambium
  • Intercalary meristem
  • Interfascicular cambium
70. The chief water conducting elements of xylem in gymnosperms are:
  • fibres
71. In Kranz anatomy, the bundle sheath cells have
  • thick walls, no intercellular spaces and large number of chloroplasts
72. Some vascular bundles are described as open because these
  • (4) are capable of producing secondary xylem and phloem
73. The kind of epithelium which forms the inner walls of blood vessels is:
  • ciliated columnar epithelium
  • cuboidal epithelium
  • squamous epithelium
  • columnar epithelium
74. Compared to those of humans, the erythrocytes in frog are
  • nucleated and with haemoglobin
  • very much smaller and fewer
  • Without nucleus but with haemoglobin
  • nucleated and without haemoglobin.
75. The type of muscles present in our:
  • intestine are striated and involuntary
76. Which of the following statement regarding mitochondrial membrane is not correct?
  • The inner membrane is highly convoluted forming a series of infoldings
77. Protein synthesis in an animal cell occurs
  • on-ribosomes present in the nucleolus as well as in cytoplasm
  • only on the ribosomes present in cytosol
  • on ribosomes present in cytoplasm as well as in mitochondria
  • only on ribosomes attached to the nuclear envelope and endoplasmic reticulum
78. Centromere is required for:
  • crossing over
  • movement of chromosomes towards poles
  • transcription
  • cytoplasmic cleavage
79. For best resolution, a student studying cell structure with a 10X eyepiece and 45X objective should illuminate the object with which light color?
  • Yellow
  • Blue
  • Red
  • Green
80. Polysome is formed by
  • a ribosome with several subunits
  • several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA
  • ribosomes attached to each other in a linear arrangement
  • many ribosomes attached to a strand of endoplasmic reticulum
81. Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell membrane?
  • phospholipids
  • glycolipids
  • cholesterol
  • proline
82. Select the wrong statement from the following
  • The chloroplasts are generally much large than mitochondria
  • Both chloroplasts and mitochondria have an internal compartment, the thylakoid space bounded by the thylakoid membrane
  • Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain an inner and an outer membrane.
  • Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain DNA
83. Cytoskeleton is made up of:
  • proteinaceous filaments
  • callose deposits
  • calcium carbonate granules
  • cellulosic microfibrils
84. Minor changes at gene level are described as
  • Reverse mutations
  • Point mutations
  • Forward mutations
  • Chromosomal mutations
85. Lactose is composed of
  • Fructose + Galactose
  • Glucose + Glucose
  • Glucose + Galactose.
  • Glucose + Fructose
86. Cellulose, the most important constitutent of plant cell wall is made of
  • unbranched chain of glucose molecules linked by b-1, 4 glycosidic bond
  • unbranched chain of glucose molecules linked by a-1, 4 glycosidic bond
  • branched chain of glucose molecules linked by a-1, 6 glycosidic bond at the site of branching.
  • branched chain of glucose molecules linked by b-1, 4 glycosidic bond in straight chain and a-1, 6 glycosidic bond at the site of branching
87. The enormous diversity of protein molecules is due mainly to the diversity of
  • amino acid sequences within the protein molecule
  • amino groups on the amino acids
  • peptide bonds
  • R groups on the amino acids
88. A phosphoglycerate is always made up of:
  • a saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a phosphate group which is also attached to a glycerol molecule.
  • only an unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached
  • only a saturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached
  • a saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached
89. In meiosis, the daughter cells differ from parent cell as well as amongst themselves due to
  • independent assortment and crossing over
  • segregation, independent assortment and crossing over
  • segregation and independent assortment
  • segregation and crossing over
90. Mitotic anaphase differs from metaphase in possessing
  • half number of chromosomes and same number of chromatids
  • same number of chromosomes and same number of chromatids
  • same number of chromosomes and half number of chromatids
  • half number of chromosomes and half number of chromatids
91. Which one of the following precedes reformation of the nuclear envelope during M phase of the cell cycle
  • Formation of the contractile ring, and formation of the phragmoplast
  • Decondensation from chromosomes, and reassembly of the nuclear lamina
  • Formation of the contractile ring, and transcription from chromosomes
  • Transcription from chromosomes, and reassembly of the nuclear lamina
92. In the somatic cell cycle
  • a short interphase is followed by a long mitotic phase
  • In G1 phase DNA content is double the amount of DNA present in the original cell
  • G2 phase follows mitotic phase
  • DNA replication takes place in S-phase
93. If a diploid cell is treated with colchicine then it becomes
  • diploid
  • triploid
  • monoploid
  • tetraploid
94. The translocation of organic solutes in sieve tube members is supported by
  • cytoplasmic streaming
  • P-proteins
  • root pressure and transpiration pull
  • mess flow involving a carrier and ATP
95. Sulphur is an important nutrient for optimum growth and productivity in
  • oilseed crops
  • cereals
  • pulse crops
  • fibre crops
96. Potometer works on the principle of
  • root pressure
  • osmotic pressure
  • potential difference between the tip of the tube and that of the plant
  • amount of water absorbed equals the amount transpired
97. The function of leg haemoglobin in the root nodules of legumes is:
  • inhibition of nitrogenase activity
  • expression of nif gene
  • oxygen removal
  • nodule differentiation
98. Nitrifying bacteria:
  • convert proteins into ammonia
  • oxidize ammonia to nitrates
  • reduce nitrates to free nitrogen
  • convert free nitrogen to nitrogen compounds
99. Which one of the following elements in plants is not remobilised?
  • Potassium
  • Phosphorus
  • Sulphur
  • Calcium
100. Which group of three of the following five statements (a-e) contain is all three correct statements regarding beri-beri?
  • a nutritional disorder in infants and young children when the diet is persistently deficient in essential protein;
  • a crippling disease prevalant among the native population of sub-Saharan Africa;
  • occurs in those countries where the staple diet is polished rice; (e) the symptoms are pain from neuritis, paralysis, muscle wasting, progressive oedema, mental deterioration and finally heart failure;
  • a deficiency disease caused by lack of thiamine (vitamin B1)
101. .The richest sources of vitamin B12 are
  • Rice and hen’s egg
  • Goat’s liver and Spirulina
  • Carrot and chicken’s breast
  • Chocolate and green gram
102. Which one of the following is the correct matching of a vitamin, its nature and its deficiency disease?
  • Vitamin A – Fat-soluble – Beri-beri
  • Vitamin A – Fat-soluble – Night blindness
  • Vitamin K – Water-soluble – Pellagra
  • Vitamin K – Fat-Soluble – Beri-beri
103. What will happen if the secretion of parietal cells of gastric glands is blocked with an inhibitor?
  • In the absence of HCI secretion, inactive pepsinogen is not converted into the active enzyme pepsin
  • Gastric juice will be deficient in chymosin
  • Enterokinase will not be released from the duodenal mucosa and so trypsinogen is not converted to trypsin
  • Gastric juice will be deficient in pepsinogen
104. If for some reason our goblet cells are non functional, this will adversely affect:
  • maturation of sperms
  • production of somatostatin
  • smooth movement of food down the intes-tine
  • secretion of sebum from the sebaceous glands
105. Which one of the following pairs of food components in humans reaches the stomach totally undigested?
  • Starch and cellulose
  • Starch and fat
  • Protein and starch
  • Fat and cellulose
106. Which one of the following statements is true regarding digestion and absorption of food in humans?
  • About 60% of starch is hydrolysed by salivary amylase in our mouth
  • Fructose and amino acids are absorbed through intestinal mucosa with the help of carrier ions like Na+.
  • Oxyntic cells in our stomach secrete the proenzyme pepsinogen.
  • Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein particles that are transported from intestine into blood capillaries.
107. The alveolar epithelium in the lungs is
  • ciliated columnar
  • nonciliated columnar
  • ciliated squamous
  • nonciliated squamous
108. Skin is an accessory organ of respiration in
  • rabbit
  • humans
  • lizard
  • frog
109. The carbon dioxide is transported via blood to lungs as
  • in combination with haemoglobin only
  • dissolved in blood plasma
  • carbaminohaemoglobin and as carbonic acid
  • in the form of carbonic acid only
110. Although much CO2 is carried in blood, yet blood does not become acidic, because
  • it combines with water to form which is neutralized by NaCO3
  • it is absorbed by the leucocytes
  • it is continuously diffused through tissues and is not allowed to accumulate
  • blood buffers play an important role in CO2 transport.
111. Air is breathed through
  • Nostrils — pharynx — larynx — trachea — bronchi — bronchioles — alveoli
  • Trachea — lungs — larynx — pharynx — alveoli
  • Nose — mouth — lungs
  • Nose — larynx — pharynx — bronchus — alveoli — bronchioles
112. Oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin is
  • Linear
  • Sigmoid
  • Hypobolic
  • Hyperbolic
113. inhaling polluted air containing unusually high content of
  • carbon dioxide
  • carbon disulphide
  • carbon monoxide
  • chloroform
114. When CO2 concentration in blood increases, breathing becomes
  • slow and deep
  • shallower and slow
  • faster and deeper
  • there is no effect on breathing
115. Which of the following are the correct statement for respiration in human
  • Workers in grinding and stone - breaking industries may suffer from lung fibrosis
  • Cigarette smoking may lead of inflammation of bronchi
  • About 90% of carbon dioxide (CO2) is carried by haemoglobin as carbamino haemoglobin.
  • Neural signals from pneumotaxic centre in pons region of brain can increase the duration of inspiration
116. Which one of the following is a possibility for most of us in regard to breathing, by making a conscious effort?
  • One can consiously breathe in and breathe out by moving the diaphragm alone, without moving the ribs at all.
  • One can breathe out air totally without oxygen.
  • The lungs can be made fully empty by forcefully breathing out all air from them
  • One can breathe out air through eustachian tubes by closing both the nose and the mouth.
117. Child death may occur in the marriage between
  • Rh– man and Rh– woman
  • Rh+ man and Rh+ woman
  • Rh– man and Rh+ woman
  • Rh+ man and Rh– woman
118. Which of the following statments is true for lymph?
  • RBCs, WBCs and plasma
  • WBC and serum
  • RBCs proteins and platelets
  • all components of blood except RBCs and some proteins
119. Impulse of heart beat originates from
  • Vagus nerve
  • S. A. node
  • Cardiac nerve
  • A. V. node
120. What is correct for blood group ‘O’?
  • Antigen and antibody both absent
  • No antigens but both a and b antibodies are present
  • A and B antigens and a, b antibodies
  • A antigen and b antibody
121. Sickle cell anaemia is induced by
  • change of amino acid in both a- and b-chain of haemoglobin
  • change of amino acid in a-chain of haemoglobin
  • change of amino acid in either a- or b-chain of haemoglobin
  • change of amino acid in b-chain of haemoglobin
122. As the age advances, there is a gradual thinning of hair in human males. This is mainly because of lowered
  • synthesis of glycogen
  • blood supply
  • availability of energy
  • synthesis of proteins
123. In the ABO system of blood groups, if both antigens are present but no antibody, the blood group of the individual would be
  • AB
  • B
  • A
  • O
124. Bundle of His is a network of
  • muscle fibres found only in the ventricle wall
  • nerve fibres found throughout the heart
  • Muscle fibers distributed throughout the heart walls
  • nerve fibres distributed in ventricles
125. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
  • The principle of countercurrent flow facilitates efficient respiration in gills of fishes
  • The presence of non-respiratory air sacs, increases the efficiency of respiration in birds
  • The residual area in lungs slightly decreases the efficiency of respiration in mammals
  • In insects, circulating body fluids serve to distribute oxygen to tissues
126. Damage to thymus in a child may lead to
  • loss of antibody mediated immunity
  • a reduction in haemoglobin content of blood
  • loss of cell mediated immunity
  • a reduction in stem cell production
127. In humans, blood passes from the post caval to the diastolic right atrium of heart due to.
  • stimulation of the sino auricular node
  • pushing open of the venous valves
  • pressure difference between the post caval and atrium
  • suction pull
128. The most active phagocytic white blood cells are:
  • lymphocytes and macrophages
  • neutrophils and monocytes
  • neutrophils and eosinophils
  • eosinophils and lymphocytes
129. Which type of white blood cells are concerned with the release of histamine and the natural anti- coagulant heparin?
  • Eosinophils
  • Neutrophils
  • Monocytes
  • Basophils
130. What is true about RBCs in humans?
  • They transport about 80 per cent oxygen only and the rest 20 per cent of it is transported in dissolved state in blood plasma
  • They carry about 20–25 per cent of CO2
  • They do not carry CO2 at all
  • They transport 99.5 per cent of O2
131. Bulk of carbon dioxide (CO2) released from body tissues into the blood is present as
  • 70% carbamino- haemoglobin and 30% as bicarbonate
  • bicarbonate in blood plasma and RBCs
  • carbamino-haemoglobin in RBCs
  • free CO2 in blood plasma
132. Given below is the ECG of a normal human. Which one of its components in human is correctly interpreted below
  • Peak P and Peak R together-Systolic and diastolic blood pressures
  • Complex QRS-One complete Pulse
  • Peak P- Initiation of left atrial contraction only
  • Peak T - Initiation of total cardiac contraction
133. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding blood pressure?
  • 105/50 mm Hg makes one very active
  • 130/90 mmHg is considered high and requires treatment
  • 90/110 mmHg may harm vital organs like brain and kidney
  • 100/55 mmHg is considered an ideal blood pressure
134. Arteries are best defined as the vessels which:
  • break up into capillaries which reunite to form a vein
  • supply oxygenated blood to the different organs
  • carry blood from one visceral organ to another visceral organ
  • break up into capillaries which reunite to form one visceral organ
135. Which one of the following plasma proteins is involved in the coagulation of blood?
  • a globulin
  • an albumin
  • fibrinogen
  • serum amylase
136. Consider the following four statements (a-d) about certain desert animals such as kangaroo, rat.
  • They feed on dry seeds and do not require drinking water
  • They have dark colour and high rate of reproduction and excrete solid urine
  • They excrete very concentrated urine and do not use water to regulate body temperature Which two of the above statements for such animals are true?
  • They do not drink water, breathe at a slow rate to conserve water and have their body covered with thick hairs
137. Lysozyme that is present in perspiration, saliva and tears, destroys
  • most virus-infected cells
  • certain types of bacteria
  • certain fungi
  • all viruses
138. Bowman’s glands are located in the
  • olfactory epithelium of our nose
  • anterior pituitary
  • proximal end of uriniferous tubules.
  • female re productive system of cockroach
139. In Ornithine cycle, which of the following wastes are removed from the blood?
  • CO2 and ammonia
  • CO2 and urea
  • Urea and urine
  • Ammonia and urea
140. The principal nitrogenous excretory compound in humans is synthesised
  • in liver and also eliminated by the same through bile
  • in kidneys but eliminated mostly through liver
  • in the liver, but eliminated mostly through kidneys
  • in kidneys as well as eliminated by kidneys
141. Which one of the following statements in regard to the excretion by the human kidneys is correct?
  • Nearly 99 per cent of the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed by the renal tubules
  • Descending limb of Loop of Henle is impermeable to water
  • Ascending limb of Loop of Henle is impermeable to electrolytes
  • Distal convoluted tubule is incapable of reabsorbing HCO3
142. Which one of the following correctly explains the function of a specific part of a human nephron?
  • Distal convoluted tubule: reabsorption of K+ ions into the surrounding blood capillaries
  • Podocytes: create minute spaces (slite pores) for the filtration of blood into the Bowman’s capsule
  • Afferent arteriole: carries the blood away from the glomerular towards renal vein.
  • Henle’s loop: most reabsorption of the major substances from the glomerular filtrate
143. A large proportion of oxygen is left unused in the human blood even after its uptake by the body tissues. This O2
  • is enough to keep oxyhaemoglobin saturation at 96%
  • acts as a reserve during muscular exercise
  • helps in releasing more O2 to the epithelial tissues.
  • raise the pCO2 of blood to 75 mm of Hg.
144. Which one of the following is not a part of a renal pelvis?
  • Collecting ducts
  • Peritubular capillaries
  • Loops of Henle
  • Convoluted tubules
145. Which one of the following characteristics is common to both in humans and adult frogs?
  • Nucleated RBCs
  • Four - chambered heart
  • Ureotelic mode of excretion
  • Internal fertilization
146. A fall in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) activates
  • juxta - glomerular cells to release renin.
  • adrenal cortex to release aldosterone.
  • posterior pituitary to release vasopressin
  • adrenal medulla to release adrenaline.
147. Ureters act as urogenital ducts in
  • frog's both males and females
  • human males
  • frog's males
  • human females
148. The characteristics and an example of a synovial joint in humans is: Characteristics Examples
  • Lymph filled between gliding joint two bones, limited between movement carpals
  • Fluid filled between Skull bones two joints, provides cushion
  • Fluid cartilage Knee joint between two bones, limited movements
  • Fluid filled synovial Joint between cavity between two atlas and axis bones
149. Which one of the following pairs of chemical substances is correctly categorized?
  • Troponin and myosin - Complex proteins in striated muscles
  • Calcitonin and thymosin - Thyroid hormones
  • Secretin and rhodopsin - Polypeptide hormones
  • Pepsin and prolactin - Two digestive enzymes secreted in stomach
150. Which of the following is an example of negative feedback loop in humans?
  • Secretion of sweat glands and constriction of skin blood vessels when it is too hot
  • Secretion of tears after falling of sand particles into the eye.
  • Constriction of skin blood vessels and contraction of skeletal muscles when it is too cold
  • Salivation of mouth at the sight of delicious food
151. One of the examples of the action of the autonomous nervous system is
  • peristalsis of the intestine
  • swallowing of food
  • knee-jerk response
  • pupillary reflex
152. In a man, abducens nerve is injured. Which one of the following functions will be affected?
  • Swallowing
  • Movement of the eye ball
  • Movement of the neck
  • Movement of the tongue
153. Alzheimer disease in humans is associated with the deficiency of:
  • gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA)
  • glutamic acid
  • dopamine
  • acetylcholine
154. Cornea transplant in humans is almost never rejected. This is because
  • it has no blood supply
  • it is composed of enucleated cells
  • its cells are least penetrable by bacteria
  • it is a non-living layer
155. During the propagation of a nerve impulse, the action potential results from the movement of:
  • K+ ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid
  • K+ ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid
  • Na+ ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid
  • Na+ ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid
156. Which one of the following is the correct difference between Rod Cells and Cone Cells of our retina? Rod Cells Cone Cells
  • Overall: Vision in Colour function poor light vision and detailed vision in bright light
  • Visual: High Low acuity
  • Distribu- More conc- Evenly tion: entrated in distributed retina all over
  • Visual: Iodopsin Rhodpsin pigment contained
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